I went over all this with epiphany a year or two ago. Long story short: Catholic teaching is that ignorance that marriage lasts until death does not invalidate a marriage, nor does infidelity either before or after marriage, nor does saying later that one "simulated consent", or that a person withheld information about themselves. Saying those things invalidate marriage is against Catholic teaching.
As far as the issue of contraception, that is a bit more complex, and I'd have to dig to find in what circuмstances that could make marriage invalid, but the Novus Ordo open-ended idea that "intending to use contraception" renders the marriage invalid is completely false.
Elwin, if you worked in one of these so-called tribunals and cooperated with handing out "annulments" on these fake grounds, you should probably discuss this with your priest, as this is very serious matter. 
I have a very hard time understanding how error about the nature of marriage (exclusive and indissoluble) does not
ipso facto invalidate a marriage, or at the very least a sacramental one (as opposed to a natural marriage between a baptized spouse and an unbaptized one, or two unbaptized spouses). To confect a sacrament validly requires the intent to do what the Church does (
facere quod facit ecclesia), and the Church does not intend to confect a sacrament that can be dissolved by any earthly power.
I know there is back-and-forth on whether a sacrament is confected when two Protestants marry. The modern concept is that they do have a valid sacramental marriage, and if this was seen differently in the past, I would be interested to know the particulars of that. And as to the Orthodox, well, they would come back and say "we don't speak of sacraments as being valid or invalid" (or something like that). They've always got an answer.