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I did not know this. Knowing what I know about him, I would say that he used (rightly or wrongly) a form of epikeia to justify using them beyond one year. He went independent and no one has heard from him for years.
B. Slupski did the same thing, but it was still against Canon law.
Yes, but wasn't he, as a bishop, able to consecrate his own oils every year? Or are you referring to when he was simply a priest?
Huh. Not what he told me a few years back.
What did he tell you?