One of the grounds of contention, between Orthodox and Catholics, that contributed to caused the great schism, is the Filioque question.
Perhaps the original greek texts convey a different meaning from the vulgate latin texts, on this issue. I am not qualified to generate my own opinion and I would like this community's help.
From wikipedia:
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Frederick Bauerschmidt notes that what Medieval theologians disregarded as minor objections about ambiguous terms, was in fact an "insufficient understanding of the semantic difference" between the Greek and Latin terms in both the East and the West.
[55] The West used the more generic Latin term
procedere (to move forward; to come forth) which is more synonymous with the Greek term προϊέναι (
proienai) than the more specific Greek term ἐκπορεύεσθαι (
ekporeuesthai, "to issue forth as from an origin").
[55] The West traditionally used one term and the East traditionally used two terms to convey arguably equivalent and complementary meaning, that is,
ekporeuesthai from the Father and
proienai from the Son.
[55][54] Moreover, the more generic Latin term,
procedere, does not have "the added implication of the starting-point of that movement; thus it is used to translate a number of other Greek theological terms."
[39] It is used as the Latin equivalent, in the
Vulgate, of not only ἐκπορεύεσθαι, but also ἔρχεσθαι, προέρχεσθαι, προσέρχεσθαι, and προβαίνω (four times) and is used of Jesus' originating from God in
John 8:42, although at that time Greek ἐκπορεύεσθαι was already beginning to designate the Holy Spirit's manner of originating from the Father as opposed to that of the Son (γέννησις — being born).
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Does anyone agree with the Greek translation and the consequential resulting meaning?
Topic: Filioque - the importance of accurate translation from Greek (Read 2428 times)