What I'm asserting is that if the missal is of the Church, then so too is the Mass. And a Mass of the Church cannot be heretical or blasphemous.
A legal act does not mean it's valid or moral. Legality is of the human sphere of the Church; validity and morality of the Divine.
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I believe it was you making a distinction between the two, not me, when you suggested the missal could have been lawfully promulgated but not the Mass.
No, I said the missal could lawfully exist, but it could not lawfully be used (i.e. the mass could not lawfully be said).
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I'm not arguing that it could not be illicit for the NO Mass to be said even if Missale Romanum was licit, but rather that the NO Mass must be valid and not inherently heretical or blasphemous in that case.
No, doesn't follow. A legal act is not necessarily moral.
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It's like how the Conciliar Church (falsely) claimed it was illicit to say the Tridentine Mass for many years. They didn't say the Mass was invalid or inherently blasphemous, because it would be ridiculous and a heretical contradiction of Trent to claim that, even if (in their belief) permission was revoked to say it.
Yes, multiple bishops claimed the True Mass was illegal, but +Benedict (after 40 years) cleared up the issue. The original claim by the evil bishops was wrong.
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Likewise, I'm saying that even if it is unlawful for clergy to say NO Mass, that it cannot be invalid, inherently heretical, or blasphemous so long as Missale Romanum was lawfully promulgated.
A legal, human act of the Church does not make it automatically valid/heretical. Are you insane?! So if a pope changes canon law to say that: mass can be legally celebrated after 9pm (which is currently illicit), that means that ALL masses celebrated after 9pm are automatically valid and moral? That makes no sense.
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Just because a mass is legal (i.e. circuмstances...after 9pm), does not mean they are automatically valid or moral.