Author Topic: two questions on The Bible (Read 702 times)

spouse of Jesus · « **on:** September 07, 2009, 05:22:14 PM »

1- Is it binding in itself?
2- Is bibliomancy allowed?

Telesphorus · « **Reply #1 on:** September 07, 2009, 08:15:03 PM »

Quote from: spouse of Jesus

1- Is it binding in itself?

What precisely do you mean? It requires correct interpretation keeping with Tradition. It is certainly binding.

Quote

2- Is bibliomancy allowed?

I don't think so.

spouse of Jesus · « **Reply #2 on:** September 08, 2009, 02:53:17 AM »

For example the verses in which Our Lord tells people not to worry about body and food and to give to everybody who asks, etc.
It seems to me that nobody considers them binding, and not obeying them is not called a mortal sin.

Telesphorus · « **Reply #3 on:** September 08, 2009, 08:07:53 AM »

Quote from: spouse of Jesus

For example the verses in which Our Lord tells people not to worry about body and food and to give to everybody who asks, etc.
It seems to me that nobody considers them binding, and not obeying them is not called a mortal sin.

One needs to avoid an interpretation that is based on rigorism.

For example, it would be a sin to tear out one's eyes instead of controlling them. The point is rhetorical - it would be better, if one didn't sin, not to have eyes, than to let one's eyes cause one to sin.

But our eyes are a gift from God. We must care for them and use them correctly, not throw away a gift because of a lack of self-control.

Interpretation needs to be careful.

Telesphorus · « **Reply #4 on:** September 08, 2009, 08:08:50 AM »

By careful I mean we need to follow the interpretations of the Church Fathers and of Church tradition.