So, something that's always had me scratching my head...
It seems there's a few arguments against the NO, which I'll put into a few categories, in no order:
1a-The NO is a banal invention, no continuity
1b-The NO is quite protestant
1c-Like 1a, this invention lacks the correct formulae/form for the true Sacrament
2-The NO is not the TLM, period, end of story, and Pope St Pius V made it clear the Mass was never to be changed.
Others...(big groupings/categories please)
It's this latter case, that there is supposed to be *one* Mass, always and forever, that gets me thinking.
I always wondered about this argument, as *even before VII there was not only 1 Rite*. There was always the Dominican Rite (and Gallican for that matter). The Canon of the Mass for the Dominican Rite is pretty much (exactly?) identical to the Roman Rite.
So, I've never heard anyone say the Dominican Rite was not valid etc (although now they've Vatican II-ized the Dominican Rite) before VII.
Is that because the Canon of the Mass was identical(?) in both rites that it 'gets a pass'?
There has never been *one* Mass, even before VII