Anyone know of a better explanation or a way to reconcile this with how they supposedly had Original Sin defects or affects before Original Sin was even a thing?  In the state of Original Innocence why did Adam need to be there to protect her or make sure she didn't do something dumb?  She also had Original Innocence. 

often the Catholic explanation is that the reason Eve was tempted was because Adam was supposed to be there to keep an eye on her and protect her from Satan and tell him to go kick rocks

Eve did not mortify her desires, same with Solomon. Hence if your eye scandalise you.... So it's important to mortify desires and dont/take yourself from the occasion of sin, because it is so easy to fall, don't be prideful thinking you are safe, because it's only by Gods grace that once can resist temptation.

Difficulties

5. When the woman heard what the serpent promised, she hoped to be able to obtain it; otherwise, her desire would have been stupid. However, there was no stupidity before the fall. But no one hopes for what he considers impossible. Therefore, since what the devil promised was impossible, it seems that in believing this the woman was deceived before the fall.


Answers to Difficulties

5. The woman hoped that in some way she would be able to get what the serpent promised, and she believed that this was in some way possible. In this she was led astray, as the Apostle says (1 Tim. 2:14). But a certain elation of mind preceded that leading astray, and because of it she inordinately desired her own excellence, which she realized as soon as the serpent spoke, as men frequently are lifted above themselves when they hear words of flatterers. And this exaltation which preceded concerned her own proper excellence in general and is the first sin. There followed this the seduction by which she believed that what the serpent was saying was true. Thus, there resulted the exaltation with which she definitely desired this excellence which the serpent promised.

Is there a source for that?





Q. 17: The Knowledge of the First Man in the State of Innocence

ARTICLE VI

In the sixth article we ask: Could Adam in the state of innocence be mistaken or deceived?
 

https://isidore.co/aquinas/english/QDdeVer18.htm#6

Difficulties

5. When the woman heard what the serpent promised, she hoped to be able to obtain it; otherwise, her desire would have been stupid. However, there was no stupidity before the fall. But no one hopes for what he considers impossible. Therefore, since what the devil promised was impossible, it seems that in believing this the woman was deceived before the fall.


Answers to Difficulties

5. The woman hoped that in some way she would be able to get what the serpent promised, and she believed that this was in some way possible. In this she was led astray, as the Apostle says (1 Tim. 2:14). But a certain elation of mind preceded that leading astray, and because of it she inordinately desired her own excellence, which she realized as soon as the serpent spoke, as men frequently are lifted above themselves when they hear words of flatterers. And this exaltation which preceded concerned her own proper excellence in general and is the first sin. There followed this the seduction by which she believed that what the serpent was saying was true. Thus, there resulted the exaltation with which she definitely desired this excellence which the serpent promised.

And the woman saw that the tree was good to eat, and fair to the eyes, and delightful to behold:

Is there a source for that?





Q. 17: The Knowledge of the First Man in the State of Innocence

ARTICLE VI

In the sixth article we ask: Could Adam in the state of innocence be mistaken or deceived?
 

https://isidore.co/aquinas/english/QDdeVer18.htm#6

I can't tell if you think I disagree with Reply #3;  I don't.

Adam should was mistaken to 'blame' Eve, as it was still his own will to sin. Think of it on terms of the new testament how Saints take stuff that happens to them without complaint or making excuses, a hard thing to do in practice. I have heard that Adam sinned because he wanted to be with Eve since they are one flesh.

I'm not sure I buy that explanation from St. John of the Cross, if you're accurately conveying it, as it seems to imply concupiscence ... which was most certainly not "in play" at the time.  This was an seduction of the will and the intellect, the Eve's desire to become "like God" was more akin to Satan's original sin of non serviam, deciding that he would disobey God because he didn't want to be "second fiddle" to Him, than some kind of sin induced from the lower faculties.  Eve (and then Adam) were drawn into sin by the desire to become like God, disobedience on account of pride.