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Author Topic: Did Lay Abbots have jurisdiction?  (Read 410 times)

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Offline Cryptinox

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Did Lay Abbots have jurisdiction?
« on: March 24, 2021, 10:43:02 PM »
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    • I know abbots who are priests had jurisdiction. But I also know Abbesses have no jurisdiction. But could a lay abbot have jurisdiction?
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    I recant many opinions on the crisis in the Church and moral theology that I have espoused on here from at least 2019-2021 don't take my postings from that time as well as 2022 possibly too seriously.

    Offline Cryptinox

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    Re: Did Lay Abbots have jurisdiction?
    « Reply #1 on: March 25, 2021, 11:02:25 AM »
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    I recant many opinions on the crisis in the Church and moral theology that I have espoused on here from at least 2019-2021 don't take my postings from that time as well as 2022 possibly too seriously.

    Offline Emile

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    Re: Did Lay Abbots have jurisdiction?
    « Reply #2 on: March 25, 2021, 10:03:19 PM »
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    • It's an interesting question, but apparently moot since 1078.



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    The Council of Poitiers (1078) finally obliged all Abbots under pain of deprivation to receive priest's orders. (Thomassin, Pt. I, I, iii, passim.)

    excerpted from https://www.newadvent.org/cathen/01015c.htm



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    If only it were all so simple! If only there were evil people somewhere insidiously committing evil deeds, and it were necessary only to separate them from the rest of us and destroy them. But the line dividing good and evil cuts through the heart of every human being. And who is willing to destroy a piece of his own heart?

    ― Aleksandr Solzhenitsyn, The Gulag Archipelago
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