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Author Topic: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?  (Read 796 times)

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Offline SimpleMan

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Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
« on: September 29, 2022, 11:45:22 PM »
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  • Please note, I am not questioning the perpetual binding force of Quo primum, nor am I trying to defend the Novus Ordo as it was promulgated.  I'm asking in the abstract. 

    Could a future Pope, i.e., one after St Pius V, have authorized missals other than the one of 1570, as an alternative to that missal, as an option that could be exercised but never mandated as a replacement of the 1570 Missale Romanum?

    For these purposes, I am assuming that the 1962 Missal is the legitimate successor to all other missals before it. 

    And could the 1965 Missal be seen as one of those alternatives?  (In all honesty, I don't know that much about it, I never experienced it, while I was alive at that time, I was a small child, and not even Catholic in 1965, or 1969 for that matter.)


    Offline Stubborn

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    Re: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
    « Reply #1 on: September 30, 2022, 09:55:39 AM »
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  • Please note, I am not questioning the perpetual binding force of Quo primum, nor am I trying to defend the Novus Ordo as it was promulgated.  I'm asking in the abstract. 

    Could a future Pope, i.e., one after St Pius V, have authorized missals other than the one of 1570, as an alternative to that missal, as an option that could be exercised but never mandated as a replacement of the 1570 Missale Romanum?

    For these purposes, I am assuming that the 1962 Missal is the legitimate successor to all other missals before it. 

    And could the 1965 Missal be seen as one of those alternatives?  (In all honesty, I don't know that much about it, I never experienced it, while I was alive at that time, I was a small child, and not even Catholic in 1965, or 1969 for that matter.)
    Quo Primum is clear that "this missal is to be used" so an alternative missal is not permitted. Incidental changes to "this missal" can and have happened, but a whole new alternate or optional missal like the "NO missile" is clearly forbidden by the law of Quo Primum.

    "But Peter and the apostles answering, said: We ought to obey God, rather than men." - Acts 5:29

    The Highest Principle in the Church: "We are first of all under obedience to God, and only then under obedience to man" - Fr. Hesse


    Offline SimpleMan

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    Re: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
    « Reply #2 on: September 30, 2022, 10:23:55 AM »
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  • Quo Primum is clear that "this missal is to be used" so an alternative missal is not permitted. Incidental changes to "this missal" can and have happened, but a whole new alternate or optional missal like the "NO missile" is clearly forbidden by the law of Quo Primum.
    Upon rereading Quo primum in its entirety (which I could have done before the OP if I weren't such a lazy slug), I see what you mean:

    https://www.papalencyclicals.net/pius05/p5quopri.htm

    Just out of curiosity, though, how does this dovetail with Archbishop Lefebvre, and even Bishop Williamson, saying that one may, out of necessity, attend the Novus Ordo (albeit reluctantly) if they have no TLM available?  I will stand corrected if they did not actually say this, but I seem to recall reading recently that ABL said one may do so, if there is no TLM within 40 km of one's home.  (I am assuming that this would not include a Novus Ordo celebrated with gross irreverence or liturgical abuses.)  FWIW, for North Americans (or even Australians, for that matter) of sound health with easy access to an automobile, 40 km would be nothing, but I can foresee that Europeans, for instance, who do not own cars and are reliant upon public transport, would be in another situation entirety.

    Again, correction or refinement welcomed.

    Offline ServusInutilisDomini

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    Re: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
    « Reply #3 on: September 30, 2022, 11:30:06 AM »
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  • Upon rereading Quo primum in its entirety (which I could have done before the OP if I weren't such a lazy slug), I see what you mean:

    https://www.papalencyclicals.net/pius05/p5quopri.htm

    Just out of curiosity, though, how does this dovetail with Archbishop Lefebvre, and even Bishop Williamson, saying that one may, out of necessity, attend the Novus Ordo (albeit reluctantly) if they have no TLM available?  I will stand corrected if they did not actually say this, but I seem to recall reading recently that ABL said one may do so, if there is no TLM within 40 km of one's home.  (I am assuming that this would not include a Novus Ordo celebrated with gross irreverence or liturgical abuses.)  FWIW, for North Americans (or even Australians, for that matter) of sound health with easy access to an automobile, 40 km would be nothing, but I can foresee that Europeans, for instance, who do not own cars and are reliant upon public transport, would be in another situation entirety.

    Again, correction or refinement welcomed.
    If the NO is Catholic. Why are you attending illicit masses in a society with an excommunicated founder and no jurisdiction?

    If it isn't Catholic how could it possibly fulfill a Sunday obligation or be licit to attend for no grave reason?

    Seriously. If the Novus Ordo is acceptable the whole traditional movement is a schismatic endeavour for no good reason and your priests would have no supplied jurisdiction only because they prefer a more Catholic rite.

    Offline Stubborn

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    Re: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
    « Reply #4 on: September 30, 2022, 11:36:11 AM »
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  • Upon rereading Quo primum in its entirety (which I could have done before the OP if I weren't such a lazy slug), I see what you mean:

    https://www.papalencyclicals.net/pius05/p5quopri.htm

    Just out of curiosity, though, how does this dovetail with Archbishop Lefebvre, and even Bishop Williamson, saying that one may, out of necessity, attend the Novus Ordo (albeit reluctantly) if they have no TLM available?  I will stand corrected if they did not actually say this, but I seem to recall reading recently that ABL said one may do so, if there is no TLM within 40 km of one's home.  (I am assuming that this would not include a Novus Ordo celebrated with gross irreverence or liturgical abuses.)  FWIW, for North Americans (or even Australians, for that matter) of sound health with easy access to an automobile, 40 km would be nothing, but I can foresee that Europeans, for instance, who do not own cars and are reliant upon public transport, would be in another situation entirety.

    Again, correction or refinement welcomed.
    As far as I know, both +ABL and +Williamson have indeed said going to a NO when TLM is unavailable is ok - as have a lot of SSPX and other trad priests, including Fr. Riperger, who says the NOM is just as efficacious as the True Mass. How they can say that is beyond me.

    Although IMO, there was so much chaos and confusion for the first few decades of this crisis that I can kinda understand them saying such things back then, but since then I cannot fathom wth trad priests who say this are thinking.
    "But Peter and the apostles answering, said: We ought to obey God, rather than men." - Acts 5:29

    The Highest Principle in the Church: "We are first of all under obedience to God, and only then under obedience to man" - Fr. Hesse


    Offline Stubborn

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    Re: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
    « Reply #5 on: September 30, 2022, 11:37:11 AM »
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  • If the NO is Catholic. Why are you attending illicit masses in a society with an excommunicated founder and no jurisdiction?

    If it isn't Catholic how could it possibly fulfill a Sunday obligation or be licit to attend for no grave reason?

    Seriously. If the Novus Ordo is acceptable the whole traditional movement is a schismatic endeavour for no good reason and your priests would have no supplied jurisdiction only because they prefer a more Catholic rite.
    The NO and it's service is not Catholic.
    "But Peter and the apostles answering, said: We ought to obey God, rather than men." - Acts 5:29

    The Highest Principle in the Church: "We are first of all under obedience to God, and only then under obedience to man" - Fr. Hesse

    Offline SimpleMan

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    Re: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
    « Reply #6 on: September 30, 2022, 11:50:55 AM »
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  • As far as I know, both +ABL and +Williamson have indeed said going to a NO when TLM is unavailable is ok - as have a lot of SSPX and other trad priests, including Fr. Riperger, who says the NOM is just as efficacious as the True Mass. How they can say that is beyond me.

    I've wondered that myself, I was just going by what Lefebvre and Williamson said.  

    Offline Yeti

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    Re: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
    « Reply #7 on: September 30, 2022, 01:25:13 PM »
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  • Fr. Cekada addressed this question on his blog a few years ago:



    Quo Primum: Could a Pope Change It?


    QUESTION: During a recent argument with a Novus Ordo friend, she told me that (according to her priest) popes can change whatever they want, as long as it is not dogmatic. We were discussing Quo Primum. I told her that it was forever, but she said that even if the pope said forever another pope can change it. What would you say to that?

    REPLY: On this point, she's right.
    A (true) pope is the supreme legislator for ecclesiastical law and has the power to change ecclesiastical laws enacted by his predecessors. Quo Primum was an ecclesiastical law, and a true pope did indeed have the power to abrogate it or modify any of its provisions.
    The forever clause was merely a type of legal boilerplate common in all sorts of papal legislation.
    In the 1960s faithful Catholics seized upon this language as a justification for disobeying the new liturgical legislation while simultaneously recognizing Paul VI as a true pope. This was unfortunate, because anyone who knows a bit about canon law can refute the argument very easily.
    The argument also obscures the real reason for adhering to the traditional Mass and rejecting the New Mass: The old rite is Catholic. The new rite is evil, inimical to Catholic doctrine (on the Real Presence, the priesthood, the nature of the Mass, etc.) and a sacrilege.
    If you send me your postal address, though, Ill send you a consolation prize: some copies of a booklet I wrote, Welcome to the Traditional Latin Mass, that compares the old Mass and the New Mass.
    Give a copy to your friend and tell her to give it to her priest. That should keep him busy for quite awhile!


    QUESTION: So you are saying that a real pope can change a Papal Bull decree that another pope has made in perpetuity? Why would a pope decree something for all time, if another pope could change it?

    REPLY: If it was a disciplinary Bull (establishing a church law), yes, another pope could change it.
    The language was simply a standard formula in church legislation that referred to one of the qualities a law is supposed to have: stability.
    Frequent changes in laws harm the common good because people do not know how to act — hence, laws are supposed to be relatively stable. But a human legislator (unlike God) cannot foresee all future circuмstances, so his successor has the power to change existing laws if he decides the circuмstances warrant it.
    This reflects a general principle in law: An equal does not have power over another equal. No pope who used perpetuity in his disciplinary decrees understood the term to mean that no future pope could ever amend or replace his legislation.
    And popes did in fact change some of the provisions of Quo Primum, even before Vatican II. In 1604, for instance, Pope Clement VIII issued new regulations for the Blessing at Mass, and in 1634 Pope Urban VIII changed the wording of the Missals rubrics and hymn texts.
    Traditionalists should stop using the Quo Primum argument. It’s a canon law urban legend — as in “alligators in the sewers,” rather than Urban VIII!


    Offline Stubborn

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    Re: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
    « Reply #8 on: September 30, 2022, 02:13:16 PM »
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  • Snip from a Michael Dimond interview with Fr. Wathen, which just makes better sense:

    Question: The Council of Trent Canon 6 says “if anyone says the Mass contains errors, therefore should be abrogated let them be anathema”. Would something like that hold any weight pertaining to what pope Paul VI did? In a way he was saying that it did contain errors therefore should be abrogated did he not?

    Fr. I would not say that his changing the Rite of the Mass was a suggestion that there was fault in the old Mass, that canon simply states that the doctrine expressed by the prayers and the ritual of the traditional Mass are thoroughly Catholic, that everyone may have confidence that there is no doctrinal error expressed by this Rite.

    The matter of the new mass must be considered first of all why the new mass was introduced. Was it introduced because it was suggested there was some deficiency in the old mass, was it introduced for less cogent reasons? It was never suggested that there was some deficiency, it was suggested that there was room for improvement. 
    ……no sufficient reason was ever given, and no one has a sufficient reason. The only reason they have is that one pope may override the rules and the laws of another. This is an error.


    Question: Now people will say Father, that it could be changed because this is simply a matter of discipline, that the pope could change it because it’s not a matter of strictly faith and morals he could not make an ex cathedra statement to define the Mass, therefore the pope has the justification to establish a new rite – that’s what people are saying and that’s why your wrong father.

    Fr. People have been given the idea that whatever the pope has the authority to do he may morally do, we deny both that the pope has the authority to introduce a new mass and we insist that the introduction of a totally new Rite with a questionable theology, and that is putting it mildly, the introduction of a new Rite with a questionable theology is not only unlawful, that is, it goes clearly contrary to the established law, but it is immoral, independent of the law of which the pope is bound.

    People have the idea that the pope, because he is the head of the Church, has limitless authority. This is altogether wrong. He is not at all limitless in what he may do, he is strictly bound to what he must do and he is bound to adhere to what has been established. The role and the duty of the pope not to deviate from what has been established, but to make sure that all his subjects don’t deviate from it.

    Question:
    ....Fr., there's an old legal principle which says; "he who makes the law can change the law", would this also apply in the Church? In other words, we had pope Paul VI making a change, did he not have a right to make this change and must not we, as Catholics, follow whatever change he authorizes? 

    Fr.
    I do not agree that he who makes the law may always abrogate it, especially if he who makes the law is doing nothing else but enunciating and particularizing a tradition.

    When pope Pius V established the Mass, he was merely canonizing a tradition. He was fixing something and making it irrevocable and unchangeable after centuries of development. Pope Pius V, once he made this law, had no right to change it simply because, that is an error. The pope's business is not to make and then to change, the pope's business is to preserve, to formulate, in order that there be a preservation of all that was established, even by the Apostles. 

    There was a period during the 60s in which changed began to be made in the traditional Latin mass. We know now that these changes were conditional. Which is to say that they had the purpose of conditioning people for a situation which the liturgy would always be subject to change. The changes were of various sorts, the purpose however was not so much the changes themselves, but to educate the people to a totally new idea, an anti-traditional idea, that the liturgy henceforth would be subject to indefinite change - which is to say not only will the external ritual be patient of an infinite variety of changes, but the doctrine also, the beliefs which the ritual expresses will also be under constant revolution........       

    …… The Mass of the Roman Rite, there is only one, Pius V said that there could never be but one, and he had the authority to impose this for all time.

    If he did not have the authority to do so, even to the extent of binding all his successors, this is to say that he, the pope, did not even know the limits of his own authority. This is to say that this pope attempted to do something which he had no authority to do.

    And we say well then if he did not have that authority, then his authority was limited. We say that if his authority is limited, then all his successors authority is limited also.

    We say yes, the authority of the pope is limited, but it is not limited to establishing the liturgy of the Mass for all time, [rather] it is limited to where a successor cannot discard this Mass because of a whimsy or a deviation in Catholic belief, and there has to be a deviation in Catholic belief on the part of pope Paul VI who would introduce such a mass  as what we have, the Novus Ordo Missae….
    "But Peter and the apostles answering, said: We ought to obey God, rather than men." - Acts 5:29

    The Highest Principle in the Church: "We are first of all under obedience to God, and only then under obedience to man" - Fr. Hesse

    Offline Ladislaus

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    Re: Did "Quo primum" exclude the possibility of additional missals?
    « Reply #9 on: September 30, 2022, 02:36:12 PM »
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  • As far as I know, both +ABL and +Williamson have indeed said going to a NO when TLM is unavailable is ok - as have a lot of SSPX and other trad priests, including Fr. Riperger, who says the NOM is just as efficacious as the True Mass. How they can say that is beyond me.

    Although IMO, there was so much chaos and confusion for the first few decades of this crisis that I can kinda understand them saying such things back then, but since then I cannot fathom wth trad priests who say this are thinking.

    If there's a quote from +Lefebvre to that effect, it was probably delivered at a certain point in time (my guess would be early 1980s).  At other times, he said the opposite.  But that's true of many issues that the Archbishop spoke about.