The policy of the SSPX is to use the liturgical books in use in the year 1962, and this has been the policy of the SSPX since Archbishop Lefebvre was still alive.
It should come as no surprise to anyone then, that the SSPX would use the rite for the consecration of a church in use in 1962.
So nothing about compromising to men, nothing about prestige or money, nothing about squandering the power of the Priesthood, and nothing about sending the wrong message to Rome.
The SSPX uses the liturgical books in force in 1962, and consecrated the Immaculata according to the rite in force in 1962. Why is that a surprise and an occasion for trying to find ulterior motives?