You are begging the question as to what the verse means, suggesting a reading is infallible. Scripture is infallible, yes, but the interpretations or readings of a verse are not, unless. Interpretations of Scripture are just that, viewpoints, interpretations, unless the Church has raised an interpretation to a matter of the faith. The Church has not dogmatically interpreted but a handful of Scriptures I believe.
Of course, one cannot read Scriptures which the Church has not so interpreted inconsistent with any Church teaching or dogma, but there are many disputed Scriptures that are read variously without being contrary to Church teaching.
The Church has already told us how to read Scripture: You must read it as LITERAL, unless the Church says otherwise. Literal is the default.
St Paul’s teaching is clear, based on the literal understanding of the passage. We know it’s a literal passage because (as you admitted), many, many saints have agreed with St Paul. Thus, the literal understanding of this passage is confirmed.
There is no room for “interpretation” on this passage. Accept the literal meaning.
It is an error to think that the Magisterium has “spoken” in each and every Scriptural passage. That hasn’t happened nor will it. Your appeal to “Well, the magisterium hasn’t told us” is not some permission to privately use your own imagination.
Topic: Mass Conversion of Jews Before Christ's Return? (Read 2343 times)