Let's look at the Latin for starters. Psalms 10
3:5 "
qui fundasti terram super basem suam non commovebitur in saeculum et in saeculum"Commovebitur (from online latin dictionary dot com)1 passive form of [commoveo]2 to shake, to stir up, to agitate3 to displace (emphasis mine), to disturb, to trouble, to worry, to upset4 to jolt5 to excite6 to waken7 to provoke8 (money or camp) to move9 to produce10 (war) to cause, start11 (point) to raiseNow this is just the Latin translation from the original (Hebrew?). So let's say that the latin meant commovebitur in the sense of "to be displaced", as it is clearly listed in the third definition of this word. Why should we then assume that the literal interpretation must be the eighth sense of the word listed in authoritative latin dictionaries?