Below is the basis for the argument. Seems pretty sound to me. Don't be troubled. Explain how this is mischaracterizing the optical phenomenon. Again, I don't care too much but let me know how I'm being duped by this article. Don't really want to argue. Unlike my enemies in this subforum, I'm not dogmatic about this so I'm not using too much brain power on it.
I explained why this is wrong several posts ago. This has nothing to do with vanishing point. Obviously parts of a ship will start to disappear BEFORE it reaches the vanishing point ... duh, because there would be nothing of the ship left to see at the vanishing point. What happens is a visual convergence between the bottom of the ship and the plane beneath it after it gets a certain distance away. This phenomenon has been well demonstrated and well docuмented. Then, when you zoom in with a greater magnification, lo and behold, the bottom part of the ship magically reappears. If it were hidden behind curvature, it could not reappear with increased zoom. Consequently, the original phenomenon was optical in nature, a visual convergence between the bottom of the ship/boat and the plane beneath it.
Plus, lines like this are nonsense right out of Neil's playbook --
when it's clear to anyone who has watched small objects disappear into the distance
Clear how? It's obvious that people can be fooled by optical illusions under certain circuмstances. In fact, these same people who claim that it's clear to anyone who uses their senses that the earth must be round, are the first ones to hop up and down screaming "mirage" or "refraction" when an entire city's skyline is visible across a lake when it shouldn't be.