It's not my intention to come and and try to "white knight" what seems to be a debate between the two of y'all, but I'd just like to note that this smacks of what the Orthodox get all wound up about, and accuse us of "artolatry" in that liminal space between when the Body is consecrated and the Blood is consecrated, where we worship the Host as Lord and God.
If It hasn't become the Body of Christ yet, then we shouldn't worship It. But It has.
Whether valid consecration can take place outside of the Eucharistic sacrifice (i.e., Mass) --- the lurid "bakery and wine cellar" scenarios --- I'm not going to go there. The Code of Canon Law simply says "nefas est" (both 1917 and 1983).
The bolded part is correct. The words of Canon 817/927 establish that it is possible for a priest to do the thing that is called "
nefas," which means wicked, evil, forbidden. If the consecration was merely "invalid," the canon would have stated that.
Instead, the act is "wicked" because the consecration
is valid and results in a mockery and abuse of the Eucharist. If the Eucharistic species wasn't actually confected, there would be no sacrilege. It would just be a simulation of the consecration. It would be irrelevant. And there would be no need for the Church to use such strong language warning about the wickedness of that act.