I don't know much about this situation with the supposed seer, and I don't really have a right to an opinion on it, but just looking at what's been posted, I have to wonder if the seer has always assumed that the apparition is/was the BVM. After all, the seers at Fatima, as well as St. Bernadette at Lourdes, did not, as far as I know, insist that it was the BVM from the beginning (that they saw). Rather, the BVM was referred to, in both cases, I think, as "The Lady." The seers did not insist at all that what they saw was the BVM. In this they were very humble.
I think that the Medj folks also insist that the apparition that they claim to see is the BVM.
The seer in this case, however, could be entirely credible, except for this one thing, IMO. Should she really assume (if this is what she's always believed) that the apparition is the BVM? Is it really her decision to make?