This has already been rebutted in another thread. This nonsence only serves to demostrate, once again, that the author(s) of these types of article simply don't have a clue.
It would help if they first understood what jurisdiction is. And then ask themselves the question To which jurisdiction do you submit? If the answer is they reject the ordinary jurisdiction of their bishop and reject the society's supplied jurisdiction - viz. no jurisdiction - the result is to put oneself outside the authority of the Church; you're a schismatic.
Peter, one does not submit to supplied jurisdiction. I read all of the quotes you gave, and none of them are going to help you with your fundamental misunderstanding, which appears to be that supplied jurisdiction is a jurisdiction "had" or "possessed" habitually under an extraordinary instance (do clarify for me if that is what you think, as that's the best way I can think to summarize everything you've said here).
The SSPX does not "have" supplied jurisdiction. Each priest and bishop within the society has
no jurisdiction
at all (either taken individually or collectively)
until and unless* they are about to put forth an act which requires it for validity, in which case
if and only if certain conditions are met, that jurisdiction (which they don't have) will be
supplied to them for the validity of the act and
only for the validity of the act, i.e., the supply of jurisdiction ceases immediately upon the completion of the act. So, hopefully you see that "submitting" to the "supplied jurisdiction of the SSPX" is really a nonsensical statement.
*And even then, it's not even really right to say that the jurisdiction is "had," since this word implies possession.