Just a read of the issue here.
Bishop Fellay started to negotiate for the withdrawal of the excommunications. (I remember this well. My objection at the time was that the excommunications should have been stated as never having been valid to begin with. This would have kept the harmony of once again doing consecrations because the same principle applied).
Then some years later he asked for a prayer crusade and within 3 months he gets granted the “lifting of the excommunications”.
So someone clarify what the argument exactly that is being made.
He manipulated the faithful by having them pray for something he had already set in motion to obtain?
Thomism would ask
What is the object?
What is the intention?
What are the circuмstances?
What virtue governs the act?
Spoiler alert: none of the answers to those questions is “witchcraft”…