A friend who is trying to be fair quoted that middle section of Fr. Ockerse's letter
in reply to my OP analysis. The part that says,
"Do not forget that when Archbishop Lefebvre consecrated the 4 SSPX bishops he made it clear that they have no jurisdiction what so ever as only the pope could delegate them any 'word of the law' (jurisdiction). If they claimed any jurisdiction, the excommunication would have been valid according to Canon Law. (cjc. 1382).
"They were entirely under the authority of the Superior General and they could not exercise those things pertaining to their episcopacy (conferring confirmations and ordaining priests) except under orders from the Superior General.
At the moment Bp. Williamson and all the other priests of the revolt have no legitimate jurisdictional attachment to the vine not having any attachment to a legitimate superior incardinating or ingrafting them into the vine of the Church." My friend then quotes a lengthy statement by Fr. Scott wherein he (the friend) highlights the following as if to prove a case against the argument I raised. But which, in fact, supports it. I was somewhat bemused as I wrote the following reply:
Fr. Scott writes:
"Unable to confer upon his priests the power of jurisdiction, Archbishop Lefebvre was nevertheless able to confer the fullness of the power of Holy Orders so that they could fulfill an Episcopal ministry, "to give Confirmation to your children, and to be able to confer ordinations in our various seminaries." These are the two airsacraments that the four bishops have constantly administered ever since, thus guaranteeing the continuing of the work of Tradition, of the Society of Saint Pius X, and insuring that it would never be watered down, absorbed by or taken over by the modernist infiltration in the Church. "
This is exactly what was quoted in my email to you (friend) from the answer to Question 9 that I sent you . Because Archbishop Lefebvre, was 'excommunicated', he no longer received Ordinary jurisdiction, which only comes through the Pope. But he knew he could draw on Extraordinary jurisdiction which is supplied in times of crisis. He ordained priests for the exact reason stated above in his statement. He was unable to confer upon them the 'type' of jurisdiction that comes from the Pope himself.
Father Ockerse is contradicting what is said in the SSPX Q/A' itself. He indicates the SG is NOW receiving the jurisdiction which flows from the Pope which is Ordinary jurisdiction. When and how did that happen? That is only possible if the SG has submitted to conciliar Rome and the present Pope - with the result that the extraordinary type is no longer necessary. But we, the laity have not submitted to conciliar Rome. We are not members of the SSPX, only the priests are members. Archbishop LeFebvre, Bishops Williamson et al, priests ordained by ABL received jurisdiction through the Extraordinary means provided by the Church. In other words, it was supplied during times of crisis. ABL taught that from the beginning. It was how he countered Rome's unjust excommunication of him and convinced the laity that they should have no fear regarding the power of priests, ordained by him, to offer Mass and the Sacraments. Finally, why are the laity not informed that they, through Bishop Fellay, are now fully recognised by Rome since he is now fully exhonerated/pardoned/forgiven and receives Ordinary jurisdiction. Suddenly, without warning, the priests who believed ABL, whether expelled or not, have unceremoniously dismissed, or linked up without their personal consent or knowledge to conciliar Rome?
I repeat from Q9: The priests of the SSPX do not have jurisdiction this way (Ordinary).
What I saw as I wrote these words is that BF
must already have a defacto-cuм-private agreement with Rome. I arrived at this conclusion by using common-sense. But whenever I post my conclusions, I am constantly confronted with questions that demand specific quotes that frame those conclusions.