Take it up with St. Thomas Aquinas and the nearly-unanimous consensus of pre-Vatican II theologians. Also, you assume as a false premise that infallibility is restricted only to revealed truths. Vatican II simply teaches that it must be a "matter of faith or morals".
Take it up with Pope Benedict XIV, who denies the illusory “consensus” your ignorance and bad will imagine.
As regards your denial that infallibility is restricted only to revealed truths (!), because Vatican I says only that it must be a matter of faith or morals, your statement seems to overlook an internal contradiction:
If infallible declarations must pertain to faith (ie., scripture and tradition) and morals, by definition, we are speaking of revelation!
The idea that a Catholic could be bound to beliefs having no basis in scripture or tradition is so revolutionary and bizarre that I do not believe I have ever heard even the most extreme sedevacantist advance the idea.
The Dimond brothers would even wince at the suggestion:
It is tantamount to denying public revelation ended with the death of the last apostle.