St. Thomas Aquinas disagrees, as do nearly all pre-Vatican II Catholic theologians.
But you're not making a distinction on what type of infallibility that St Thomas was referring to. He was probably not referring to ABSOLUTE infallibility, and if he was, then he would be corrected by Vatican 1. Assuming he was not referring to absolute, unconditional assent infallibility, (as we have shown that most other theologians were not referring to this kind), then I will agree that canonizations are infallible, but with a lowercase "i" or as has been said previously, I will give religious conditional assent.
Still, in the common usage of the term infallible, canonizations are not such since they do not require unconditional assent. So, some qualification needs to be made when explaining this to others who are unaware of the necessary distinctions, lest one bend the truth.