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Poll

New rite bishops' ordinations: Inherently invalid?

YES
13 (44.8%)
NO
16 (55.2%)

Total Members Voted: 23

Author Topic: NO bishops' ordinations: Invalid?  (Read 2590 times)

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Offline Neil Obstat

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Re: NO bishops' ordinations: Invalid?
« Reply #30 on: July 30, 2018, 01:55:19 PM »
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  • Sorry but I pressed NO when I meant to press YES.
    Maybe I am an idiot or maybe my fingers are fat and my phone too small.
    .
    Maybe both. Just kidding. 
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    But seriously, the CMRI make this question a major part of their platform. Their minions are stuck in thinking that Novus Ordo bishops are all fake bishops. It's a very popular sedevacantist precept, upon which they pile a lot of their opposition attitude. 
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    Offline Seraphina

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    Re: NO bishops' ordinations: Invalid?
    « Reply #31 on: July 30, 2018, 03:55:32 PM »
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  • Maybe the question should be "Are they heretics?"   They say a invalid mass (mess).  They are not ordaining priest!  So, priest can not give absolution or any sacrament.
    Bishops take money of the Catholic Charities and they know it gives $$ to abortion, LBGT and the agenda of the Masons.  therefore, bishops give no life on the altar.  They have no altars only tables.  They know Christ is not present.  They made sure of that!  And they can not hide behind the smoke screen or pro-life.  So, they give no life at all!

    Does that cover it?  I doubt it!
    You're confusing licitity with validity.  Being validly ordained does not make a person holy.  A Satanic priest can be validly ordained, as can a bishop.  The current wave of immorality did not start with Vat. II.  Vat. II was planned and implemented by validly ordained clergy from the Pope on down.  The men who pushed it through were immoral, already practicing pedophilia, ɧoɱosɛҳųαƖity, believing and teaching Modernism, "the synthesis of all heresies," in Pope St. Pius X's day, about 55 years before Vat. II.  
    "They know Christmas is not present."  Can you personally know the intent of all novus ordo priests?!  If a priest is deliberately serving Satan, wishing to blaspheme Christ, it is better from his (the priest's) point of vies, for Christ to be present.  What purpose is there in insulting a wafer of bread and some wine?   If the priest's intent is to dupe the innocent who receive in good faith, then at least spiritual communion has occured.  If Christ is Present, He, Himself imparts grace despite the wickedness of the priest.  The priest, in turn, adds to his eternal punishment.
    A valid Sacrament must have the proper 1) Form, 2) Matter, 3) Intent, AS DEFINED BY THE CHURCH, not as determined by laypersons, however well-read in theology, Church law, or however pious.  
    Whether one should attend the novus ordo, whether it is licit, and pleasing to God, is another matter.  To this question, I think most on CI, except maybe poche, would say it is not licit, is displeasing to God, and harmful to souls for the very reasons pointed out, immorality of secretly supporting abkrtion, contraception, ɧoɱosɛҳųαƖity, divorce, remarriage, and all manner of worldliness.