What exactly a juridic act is, is open to opinion. It is not defined in 1917 code of canon law or the 1983 edition even though the latter has a section on juridic acts. Suffice to say, a juridic act must have juridic effect and the juridic effect of denial of Catholic dogma is ipso facto excommunication. I just want you to understand that your belief that the only necessary matter for the sacrament of Holy Eucharist is either bread OR wine is in direct contradiction to Catholic dogma and has serious consequences.
Wow, you really are quite emotional and all I've done is quote the commentary from a book on canon law.
Not really, there is a general consensus and the commonly accepted one: "an externally manifested act of the will by which a certain juridic effect is intended."
The eucharist is not a juridic act and you won't find any source that states it is (and I think you know this). Have you actually thought about what you wrote: the will of celebrant must intend to 'excommunicate' himself... The mind boggles. Anyway, I notice you keep ignoring my Good Friday reference, I wonder why...
Whatever argument you are attempting to construct in this current post is not going to convince anyone. All it says is that if a priest fails to consecrate the wine he has to correct it. No surprise here. That is common knowledge among faithful Catholics. But you on the other hand, would be satisfied if he did not because you do not believe that the wine has to be consecrated at all for a valid sacrifice.
I thought it obvious, redistribution of communion is not required, because...
The term “juridic act” is not defined in the 1917 code of canon law or in the 1983 code even though the 1983 code has a section on juridic acts which was not in the 1917 code. The term is not defined in canonical dictionaries. The term was adopted by canonists after being used in secular commentaries on Roman law in 19th century, and canonists have used the term differently. Thus it is a relatively new term in canon law. Canonists that I have researched have given several different definitions, some broad and some narrow in scope. Being that that there is no fixed canonical definition, I am at liberty to use the term in a broad or narrow sense. The only definition that seems to be generally agreed upon is that it is any act that produces a juridic effect, that is, any judicial effect under the law. Canon 927 concerns divine law, a juridic act by God which unconditionally forbids a specific act under any circuмstances whatsoever. So what is the juridic effect? Since the law permits no exception under any circuмstances whatsoever then the law can only be an invalidating law which is a juridic effect. It can only be an invalidating law because all laws, human and divine, do not bind in cases of impossibility or necessity.
If you have an argument. Structure it as an argument.
By the way heresy is a canonical crime, thus a juridic act and the juridic effect of heresy is
ipso facto excommunication. It is a dogma of divine and Catholic faith that the matter for Holy Eucharist is bread AND wine, not as you believe, bread OR wine.
Would you produce some commentary doctrinal, moral, liturgical or canonical on possible defects in consecrating bakeries.