This reference provided by you supports exactly what I have said. It confirms my understanding that Canon 10 simply says that all laws that are clearly stated to by invalidating laws “must” always be treated as invalidating laws. Your reference makes it clear that there exists invalidating laws that are not referred to specifically but only “implicitly” as invalidating laws. The fact that a law is an invalidating law can be proven in the manner that I have done so.
If this is the best you can do please do not waste my time.
Marie, you seem to be struggling. The very first paragraph provides a definition of an invalidating law:
Invalidating laws (leges irritantes) establish the necessary requirements of a
juridic act, such that their non-fulfillment would render the act invalid, null and void, not recognized as legally existing.
(p.s.. To give you a hint I've underlined part of it)