I just explained. There are conditions in place for when and how allowing an evil to take place due to double effect is permitted, one of them being proportionality between the intended good and the unintended evil outcome. So you could argue abortion vs. sodomy, but abortion vs. abortion just doesn't work.
I am wondering if double effect can ever permit an evil when there is no necessity to act?
The classic example of double effect is five people are tied to one train track, and one person is tied to another train track. Trains approach the captives on each track. You are obliged to render assistance, but there is only time to untie those on one track or the other.
You choose to free the five, even though it will mean the death of the one.
You do not intend the evil effect to the one, and the good effect is 5x the evil effect (ie., satisfies the proportionality requirement).
But in this instance, acting was morally necessary and obligatory (ie., one would commit a grave sin to abstain from rendering assistance).
Voting, when there is no Catholic and/or moral candidate, is not obligatory (ie., there is no moral compulsion to act).
Therefore, does double effect even apply (ie., in the absence of necessity to act)?