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Author Topic: Why dont (most) Catholics think like this?!  (Read 606 times)

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Offline Jehanne

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Offline Sigismund

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Why dont (most) Catholics think like this?!
« Reply #1 on: April 06, 2013, 10:38:36 PM »
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  • Because they don't recognize sound ecclesiology when they see it.  This explanation is one of the best I have seen for why "Eucharistic hospitality"" is wrong.
    Stir up within Thy Church, we beseech Thee, O Lord, the Spirit with which blessed Josaphat, Thy Martyr and Bishop, was filled, when he laid down his life for his sheep: so that, through his intercession, we too may be moved and strengthen by the same Spir


    Offline Neil Obstat

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    Why dont (most) Catholics think like this?!
    « Reply #2 on: April 07, 2013, 12:55:35 AM »
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  • Quote from: OP

    Pages: << prev 1 next >>    Reply to Topic Create New Topic Create New Poll
    Why don't (most) Catholics think like this?!



    Most Catholics are not members of the Orthodox church, so why would they
    think EXACTLY like the Orthodox?  

    However, putting that aside, it seems to me that you are really trying to ask
    (correct me if I'm wrong!) why "most Catholics" do not express their thoughts
    in a sound, logical manner as evidenced by this well-written and pithy article.

    For example, why does Bishop Fellay not talk this way?  Why have the
    Menzingen-denizens, included but not limited to Fr. Rostand and Fr. Laisney
    not express themselves in this manner?  I would suppose that they do not
    because they are bent on making a practical and impossible agreement with
    modernist Rome, and this kind of talk would be inimical to regularization.  

    Ironically, the Orthodox can huff and puff to their hearts content and Rome
    continues to grovel in their general direction.  


    Word!


    Conversely, for example, I don't expect anyone is prepared to claim that
    Bishop Williamson does not, nor Fr. Pfeiffer, Chazal, Hewko or Voigt, among
    others, Fr. Trincado and Dom Tomas Aquino come to mind, think and speak
    with like soundness of logic, albeit using somewhat different maxims and data.

    Nor should anyone wonder whether the Faithful who are presently being tested
    with the crisis in the SSPX are prone to learning how to think logically like this.



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    Offline Neil Obstat

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    Why dont (most) Catholics think like this?!
    « Reply #3 on: April 07, 2013, 01:13:39 AM »
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  • I see on the OCA website that their Resurrection Sunday is delayed 5 weeks
    this year after the Roman Catholic date of Easter.

    Is the OCA always 5 weeks behind for Easter, or is this year different
    somehow?  I thought the Greek Orthodox were 2 weeks behind in previous years.


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    Offline TKGS

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    Why dont (most) Catholics think like this?!
    « Reply #4 on: April 07, 2013, 05:55:24 AM »
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  • Quote from: Neil Obstat


    I see on the OCA website that their Resurrection Sunday is delayed 5 weeks
    this year after the Roman Catholic date of Easter.

    Is the OCA always 5 weeks behind for Easter, or is this year different
    somehow?  I thought the Greek Orthodox were 2 weeks behind in previous years.




    In their liturgical calendar, the Orthodox do not recognize the Gregorian calendar which "fixed" the calendar because of an error so that the equinox would return to its rightful place around the 21st of March.  Because Easter is a moveable feast, apparently, in their computation, it falls much later in the year.


    Offline Neil Obstat

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    Why dont (most) Catholics think like this?!
    « Reply #5 on: April 08, 2013, 01:40:36 AM »
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  • I wonder if you (or anyone) can explain how they determine the date of
    Easter every year?  

    In the Roman Church we say it is the Sunday following the first full moon of
    Spring.  So when the first full moon of spring occurs (in Rome) precisely at
    12:00:00 am (midnight) Sunday morning through 11:59:59 pm Saturday,
    Easter would fall on Sunday immediately following.  By this convention, Good
    Friday is either the day of the first full moon of spring, the day before it, or
    within 5 days of it;  nor is Good Friday ever more than one day before it or
    more than 5 days after it.  

    By this convention, we always have Good Friday on a day that is very close
    to 2 weeks before or after a new moon.  By this convention there is NEVER a
    new moon on Good Friday, just as there was no new moon on the original
    Good Friday.  And since a total solar eclipse (which darkens the earth in the
    shadow of the moon as if it were night time) can only happen during a new
    moon, an "eclipse" cannot be the reason that the earth was darkened when
    Our Lord died on the Cross, for the moon at the time was on the opposite
    side of the earth, away from the sun, and could not have been casting its
    shadow on the earth at all.  The earth could have been casting its shadow on
    the moon, but that would have caused a darkening of the moon, not of the
    earth, and that darkening of the moon, called a lunar eclipse, is always seen
    from earth during the night, not during the daytime.  

    If the Orthodox use some other method of determining the date of Easter,
    then they might have Good Friday on the day of a new moon instead of a
    full moon (or close to it), in which case there would be no moonlight during
    the Agony in the Garden and Our Lord's Passion, and there could also be a
    total solar eclipse in the afternoon of Good Friday, which did not happen on
    the original Good Friday.


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