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Author Topic: What was the Church's stance on people who followed antipopes in the past?  (Read 1304 times)

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Offline Jaynek

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  • The circuмstances were entirely different. This was the time of the Great Western Schism when three men had been elected pope by the Cardinals, and all three men claimed to be pope. It was nearly impossible to know for sure who the true pope was.  This was a case in which all three popes were truly "doubtful".  
    In our day there is one person elected by the Cardinals who claims to be pope, and unfortunately it is Francis.  Ratzinger quit, his resignation was accepted by the Church, and he no longer claims to be the pope.  There is only one person who claims to be Pope.  There is no comparison between our time and the Great Western Schism.
      
    The circuмstances are different, but there are still reasons to question the papacy.  We are seeing popes who appear to be harming the Church with their teaching.  We need some way to explain such a thing happening.


    Offline Ladislaus

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  • There is only one person who claims to be Pope.  There is no comparison between our time and the Great Western Schism.
      

    :facepalm:

    Of course there's a comparison.  There's a principle here of what happens to a Catholic who mistakenly adheres to an Antipope.  Principle is the same whether there is one or there are three.


    Offline RomanTheo

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  • :facepalm:

    Of course there's a comparison.  There's a principle here of what happens to a Catholic who mistakenly adheres to an Antipope.  Principle is the same whether there is one or there are three.
    You must have missed the point.  The difference is that during the Great Western Schism the axiom Papa dubius papa nullus applied, objectively, to all three claimants.   Mistakenly adhering to the wrong pope at that time is entirely different than not adhering to a single pope whose election was accepted by the entire Church, and therefore whose legitimacy is not objectively in doubt.  
    Never trust; always verify.

    Offline TKGS

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  • You must have missed the point.  The difference is that during the Great Western Schism the axiom Papa dubius papa nullus applied, objectively, to all three claimants.   Mistakenly adhering to the wrong pope at that time is entirely different than not adhering to a single pope whose election was accepted by the entire Church, and therefore whose legitimacy is not objectively in doubt.  
    The problem is that his legitimacy is objectively in doubt...at least for those who have eyes to see and ears to hear.

    Offline Theosist

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  • You must have missed the point.  The difference is that during the Great Western Schism the axiom Papa dubius papa nullus applied, objectively, to all three claimants.   Mistakenly adhering to the wrong pope at that time is entirely different than not adhering to a single pope whose election was accepted by the entire Church, and therefore whose legitimacy is not objectively in doubt.  
    There were antipopes who were "accepted by the entire Church" in the same sense as one would use it of Francis. The relative numbers of bishops, priests and laity on the opposing side makes no logical difference to that sense.


    Offline forlorn

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  • There were antipopes who were "accepted by the entire Church" in the same sense as one would use it of Francis. The relative numbers of bishops, priests and laity on the opposing side makes no logical difference to that sense.
    Which antipopes were these? I know of antipopes who had entire nations following them, but Francis easily has 99% of Catholic Bishops following him. I don't know of any antipope who could boast such percentages.

    Offline Theosist

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  • Which antipopes were these? I know of antipopes who had entire nations following them, but Francis easily has 99% of Catholic Bishops following him. I don't know of any antipope who could boast such percentages.
    I said IN THE SAME SENSE of Francis being recognised by "the whole Church", namely being recognised by the majority of Catholic laity, priests and bishops, and recognised by ALL of the cardinals (e.g., Clement VII). I also explicitly stated that RELATIVE PERCENTAGES make NO LOGICAL DIFFERENCE to that sense. Obviously neither the Antipopes nor Francis can claim recognistion by the "whole Church" unless ones defines in the latter case as being outside of the Church everyone and anyone who does not recognise him, in which case it's just a vacuous tautology.
    At what point does a percentage which is not 100% become or cease to be "the whole Church"? That is not a well-defined sense of the term and contains an implicit heap paradox, i.e., it's an exercise in absurdity.