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Author Topic: Vain Repetition  (Read 2034 times)

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Offline Disputaciones

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Vain Repetition
« on: October 01, 2014, 01:29:38 AM »
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  • In the 1582 & 1859 Douays, and in the Challoner one, Matthew 6:7 says "speak not much", and I think the Novus Ordo ones say almost equivalent things.

    Is "vain repetition" a Protestant invention or is it like that in the Greek?


    Offline poche

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    « Reply #1 on: October 01, 2014, 01:34:08 AM »
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  • Actually Matthew 6:7 says the following;

    But when you pray, go to your inner room, close the door, and pray to your Father in secret. And your Father who sees in secret will repay you.

     

    http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG0839/__PVF.HTM


    Offline OHCA

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    « Reply #2 on: October 01, 2014, 06:47:38 AM »
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  • Looks like a gratuitous swipe at Catholicism in the heretical rag that is the KJV.

    Offline JezusDeKoning

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    « Reply #3 on: October 01, 2014, 06:55:33 AM »
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  • Probably something Protestant.

    The KJV could probably be something regarded as having influence on the development of modern English. I will give it that.

    At the same time, it was translated and developed by a church that was usurped by an anti-Catholic king and monarchy. Therefore, it has no bearing as a Scripture translation. I would avoid it.
    Remember O most gracious Virgin Mary...

    Offline glaston

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    « Reply #4 on: October 01, 2014, 07:12:40 AM »
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  • Quote from: JezusDeKoning
    Probably something Protestant.

    The KJV could probably be something regarded as having influence on the development of modern English. I will give it that.

    At the same time, it was translated and developed by a church that was usurped by an anti-Catholic king and monarchy. Therefore, it has no bearing as a Scripture translation. I would avoid it.


    There are thousands of churches built by Catholic Masonic Builders in UK (before the Reformation)
    Todays Faux-Masonry was satanically poisoned/influenced by the gentry-Jєω-occultists after reformation!

    These 'protestant' churches have all got a Catholic/Rome/Peter foundation!

    These churches have Bells which still have Catholic prayers to Catholic Saints engraved into them.
    (They wont let us ring out these offerings to God/Saints in UK - false excuse isbecause of 'so-called' Politically Correct 'noise pollution' nuisance)

    The 1928 Book of Common Prayer: Catechism
    justus.anglican.org/resources/bcp/1928/Catechism.htm
    And I pray unto God to give me his grace, that I may continue in the same unto my life's ... I believe in the Holy Ghost: The holy Catholic Church; The Communion of ... To honour and obey the civil authority: To submit myself to all my governors, ...


    Offline BTNYC

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    « Reply #5 on: October 01, 2014, 08:21:06 AM »
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  • Quote from: Disputaciones
    In the 1582 & 1859 Douays, and in the Challoner one, Matthew 6:7 says "speak not much", and I think the Novus Ordo ones say almost equivalent things.

    Is "vain repetition" a Protestant invention or is it like that in the Greek?


    Latin Vulgate:

    7 Orantes autem, nolite multum loqui, sicut ethnici, putant enim quod in multiloquio suo exaudiantur.

    Douay-Rheims (Challoner):

    [7] And when you are praying, speak not much, as the heathens. For they think that in their much speaking they may be heard.

    The Revised Standard Version - the translation of choice for "conservative" neocaths has:

    7 "And in praying do not heap up empty phrases as the Gentiles do; for they think that they will be heard for their many words.

    As I do not own it (and cannot find it online), I cannot provide the verse as it appears in the execrable Jerusalem Bible (the official translation of the NO in the UK), but the official US Novus Ordo translation, the New American Bible, renders the verse thus:

    7 In praying, do not babble like the pagans, who think that they will be heard because of their many words.

    I think even the most casual student of Latin can see that the DR's "speak not much" is a far better and closer translation of the Vulgate's "nolite multum loqui" than the Novus Ordo's translations paraphrases.

    And speaking of the Novus Ordo, one of Bugnini's stated aims in his liturgical overhaul was the restoration of "noble simplicity" to the Roman Rite, by removing what he dismissed as "Gallican acretions" and "useless repetitions." Well, as anyone who's suffered through the Novus Ordo can attest, with its dearth of any mention of a propitiatory Sacrifice and its interminable "Lord hear our prayers" in response to such pressing intentions as "For the children returning to school, that they might grow and become enriched by the journey of learning" and "For an end to all discrimination and racial profiling" - the Traditional Latin Mass' many useful and vital repetitions were replaced by genuinely useless repetitions... and more than a few Lutheran acretions.
     

    Offline claudel

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    « Reply #6 on: October 01, 2014, 10:41:31 AM »
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  • Here, as elsewhere, in CI threads claiming superior accuracy, even "bestness," for one scriptural translation (usually the very first DR) over all others, what is painfully evident is the almost universal avoidance of one critical fact: literally no one here (emphatically including yours truly) has any period-appropriate Hebrew and Greek, and almost no one has any ecclesiastical Latin.

    (I studied classical Latin for five years in high school and college, but what the finest Latin scholar I ever knew, the now long dead Brother Albion Anthony Moon, FSC, said of himself is, truth to tell, far truer of me [and at least equally so of you, gentle reader]: "I don't trust my own translations of Church Latin because I studied it closely for only five years or so." Thus, how especially cautious should everyone here be in declaring one version of a scriptural translation preferable to another on grounds of accuracy!)

    The caution about the lack of Greek is especially relevant here for two reasons: (1) Though use of Greek and Hebrew originals for what are widely but somewhat sloppily called Catholic Bible translations into English has since Pius XII's time been standard and recommended practice, it should not be forgotten that the Vulgate (translated of course from various Greek and Hebrew sources, as well as earlier Latin translations), the sole basis of all earlier translations, has itself been subject to near-continuous revision (usually but not always of a minor nature) since Jerome's own time—and he never formally ceased revising and correcting his own work! The Clementine Vulgate of the sixteenth century was, of course, anything but a minor revision, and the revision process, placed thereafter in the charge of full-time Vatican Latinists, has continued unbroken since. (What's more, if anyone here knows of any hardline Trad criticism of even the Nova Vulgata of 1979, it will come as news to me.) As is well known, the first edition of DR was not based on the Clementine Vulgate, which was still incomplete and unpublished at the same time DR was in preparation. Thus, Gregory Martin and DR's other translators were keenly aware of the need to revise and correct DR's first edition. (2) Though much of the original KJV translation of the New Testament shows the influence of DR's wording, the former's translators were also able to consult both the Clementine Vulgate and whatever copies of the Septuagint and (for the OT) the Masoretic Hebrew text they could get their hands on. To take one very famous example, the start of Psalm 22/23, the first DR translation used the older Vulgate wording "Dominus regit me" to yield "The Lord ruleth me." The wording later adopted as undoubtedly preferable, "Dominus pascit me" (the Lord shepherds me), did not (I believe) even appear in the pre-Clementine Vulgate as an alternative rendering. Please note that I do not call attention to this matter to depreciate the DR, the Vulgate, or anything else. Rather, my point is to indicate that biblical translation, indeed biblical scholarship generally, is of the nature of quicksand: one false step, and you may sink without trace. Venturing into this boggy terrain should be left to true experts.

    Quote from: BTNYC
    … As I do not own it (and cannot find it online), I cannot provide the verse as it appears in the execrable Jerusalem Bible (the official translation of the NO in the UK) …


    I do not share BTNYC's thoroughly negative assessment of the original JB, although I have in a much earlier thread linked to a markedly censorious review by a man whose Latin and Greek and whose knowledge of biblical scholarship dwarfs all of ours taken in toto. I think that BTNYC's description may far more aptly be applied to the New Jerusalem Bible. This version—which, in the opinion of almost all scholars, far more closely mirrors the meaning of the Greek and Hebrew originals in numerous side-by-side comparisons with the original JB—tosses all its gains into the fire by being one of the earliest English Bible translations to adopt so-called gender neutrality almost everywhere that it can be managed without obvious ludicrousness of effect.

    A brief note of correction: the original JB was one of three English translations approved by the UK bishops (1) for English readings of the epistle and Gospel at Mass prior to the 2nd Vatican Council and (2) for use in the actual NOM itself back in the late sixties. The other versions so approved were Ronald Knox's and—here I do not entirely trust my recollection—the slightly emended version of the RSV that has been imprimatur'd for all English-speaking Catholics since the early 1950s. (For what it's worth, I've never met a Catholic biblical scholar who had anything but a high opinion of the imprimatur'd RSV.)

    I freely admit to having no idea whether the old JB still holds its NO canonical status in the UK or whether it's been replaced by the NJB. I wouldn't be surprised were the latter the case since, after all, the NJB doesn't yet refer to God as "she". How soon, I wonder, till Papa Frank OK's the crossing of that bridge?

    Offline BTNYC

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    « Reply #7 on: October 01, 2014, 11:45:23 AM »
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  • Quote from: claudel
    Here, as elsewhere, in CI threads claiming superior accuracy, even "bestness," for one scriptural translation (usually the very first DR) over all others, what is painfully evident is the almost universal avoidance of one critical fact: literally no one here (emphatically including yours truly) has any period-appropriate Hebrew and Greek, and almost no one has any ecclesiastical Latin.

    (I studied classical Latin for five years in high school and college, but what the finest Latin scholar I ever knew, the now long dead Brother Albion Anthony Moon, FSC, said of himself is, truth to tell, far truer of me [and at least equally so of you, gentle reader]: "I don't trust my own translations of Church Latin because I studied it closely for only five years or so." Thus, how especially cautious should everyone here be in declaring one version of a scriptural translation preferable to another on grounds of accuracy!)

    The caution about the lack of Greek is especially relevant here for two reasons: (1) Though use of Greek and Hebrew originals for what are widely but somewhat sloppily called Catholic Bible translations into English has since Pius XII's time been standard and recommended practice, it should not be forgotten that the Vulgate (translated of course from various Greek and Hebrew sources, as well as earlier Latin translations), the sole basis of all earlier translations, has itself been subject to near-continuous revision (usually but not always of a minor nature) since Jerome's own time—and he never formally ceased revising and correcting his own work! The Clementine Vulgate of the sixteenth century was, of course, anything but a minor revision, and the revision process, placed thereafter in the charge of full-time Vatican Latinists, has continued unbroken since. (What's more, if anyone here knows of any hardline Trad criticism of even the Nova Vulgata of 1979, it will come as news to me.) As is well known, the first edition of DR was not based on the Clementine Vulgate, which was still incomplete and unpublished at the same time DR was in preparation. Thus, Gregory Martin and DR's other translators were keenly aware of the need to revise and correct DR's first edition. (2) Though much of the original KJV translation of the New Testament shows the influence of DR's wording, the former's translators were also able to consult both the Clementine Vulgate and whatever copies of the Septuagint and (for the OT) the Masoretic Hebrew text they could get their hands on. To take one very famous example, the start of Psalm 22/23, the first DR translation used the older Vulgate wording "Dominus regit me" to yield "The Lord ruleth me." The wording later adopted as undoubtedly preferable, "Dominus pascit me" (the Lord shepherds me), did not (I believe) even appear in the pre-Clementine Vulgate as an alternative rendering. Please note that I do not call attention to this matter to depreciate the DR, the Vulgate, or anything else. Rather, my point is to indicate that biblical translation, indeed biblical scholarship generally, is of the nature of quicksand: one false step, and you may sink without trace. Venturing into this boggy terrain should be left to true experts.

    Quote from: BTNYC
    … As I do not own it (and cannot find it online), I cannot provide the verse as it appears in the execrable Jerusalem Bible (the official translation of the NO in the UK) …


    I do not share BTNYC's thoroughly negative assessment of the original JB, although I have in a much earlier thread linked to a markedly censorious review by a man whose Latin and Greek and whose knowledge of biblical scholarship dwarfs all of ours taken in toto. I think that BTNYC's description may far more aptly be applied to the New Jerusalem Bible. This version—which, in the opinion of almost all scholars, far more closely mirrors the meaning of the Greek and Hebrew originals in numerous side-by-side comparisons with the original JB—tosses all its gains into the fire by being one of the earliest English Bible translations to adopt so-called gender neutrality almost everywhere that it can be managed without obvious ludicrousness of effect.

    A brief note of correction: the original JB was one of three English translations approved by the UK bishops (1) for English readings of the epistle and Gospel at Mass prior to the 2nd Vatican Council and (2) for use in the actual NOM itself back in the late sixties. The other versions so approved were Ronald Knox's and—here I do not entirely trust my recollection—the slightly emended version of the RSV that has been imprimatur'd for all English-speaking Catholics since the early 1950s. (For what it's worth, I've never met a Catholic biblical scholar who had anything but a high opinion of the imprimatur'd RSV.)

    I freely admit to having no idea whether the old JB still holds its NO canonical status in the UK or whether it's been replaced by the NJB. I wouldn't be surprised were the latter the case since, after all, the NJB doesn't yet refer to God as "she". How soon, I wonder, till Papa Frank OK's the crossing of that bridge?


    An edifyingly thoughtful post, Claudel.

    My experience with the Jerusalem Bible goes back about a decade - a time when I owned nearly every modern "Catholic" translation of the Scriptures then in print.

    I thank you for correcting what you rightly inferred from my description of the JB - that I had implicitly ascribed the horrendous "gender neutrality" of the NJB to the original version. That distinction ought to be made - the NJB is truly reprehensible pap that reminds the reader of its modernist and feminist bent every single time you run into a pronoun, a crime the JB does not commit.

    That having been said, I still came to find the original JB objectionable due to its impiously presumptuous habit of rendering the Tetragrammaton not as "The LORD" (as the Church always has), nor even as "YHWH" (which would at least be responsible scholarship) but as "Yahweh," which is merely a guess as to the proper pronunciation of the Ineffable Name of the Almighty (a matter with which, I'm sure we can agree, it is hardly advisible to play fast and loose). I also recall being scandalized by the JB's translation of S. Luke xx:xviii (which the DR translates: "For I say to you, that I will not drink of the fruit of the vine, till the kingdom of God come") as "I say to you, I will not drink wine until," etc.  

    That's what I recall about my eventual rejection of the Jerusalem Bible; the former fault being, I believe, an example of the "Judaizing" fad of all things Christian then in vogue, and the latter an anti-Sacramental olive branch to the Protestants - not all that surprising from a translation that, despite its literary merits (JRR Tolkien's (!) contributions come to mind), is nevertheless every bit the product of its baleful era, every bit the contemporary of Nostra Aetate and Unitatis Redintigratio.


    Offline Disputaciones

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    « Reply #8 on: October 01, 2014, 12:37:25 PM »
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  • Does there still exist any book of the NT today 100% complete in Greek, as in, 100% original, or have they all been lost?

    Offline claudel

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    « Reply #9 on: October 01, 2014, 08:40:19 PM »
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  • Quote from: Disputaciones
    Does there still exist any book of the NT today 100% complete in Greek, as in, 100% original, or have they all been lost?


    What you mean by "100 percent original" isn't ideally clear. If you mean MSS that can be dated in their entirety to the late first century, the answer is no. I believe that even the oldest extant fragments of NT books date from after the fifth century, but this is not a matter I've looked into for some years and so I might easily be wrong. But I am quite sure that nothing earlier than 250 A.D. exists for any part of the NT whatsoever (contrast this with the pre-Christian Essene scrolls for some OT books).

    The old Catholic Encyclopedia's article "New Testament" is useful in many ways. Of course, being now a century old, it contains no information about anything of a bibliophilic character that has come to light in the past hundred years (i.e., quite a lot). I recommend you read it.

    Offline claudel

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    « Reply #10 on: October 01, 2014, 08:55:06 PM »
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  • Quote from: BTNYC
    … That having been said, I still came to find the original JB objectionable due to its impiously presumptuous habit of rendering the Tetragrammaton not as "The LORD" (as the Church always has), nor even as "YHWH" (which would at least be responsible scholarship) but as "Yahweh," which is merely a guess as to the proper pronunciation of the Ineffable Name of the Almighty (a matter with which, I'm sure we can agree, it is hardly advisible to play fast and loose). I also recall being scandalized by the JB's translation of S. Luke xx:xviii (which the DR translates: "For I say to you, that I will not drink of the fruit of the vine, till the kingdom of God come") as "I say to you, I will not drink wine until," etc.  

    That's what I recall about my eventual rejection of the Jerusalem Bible; the former fault being, I believe, an example of the "Judaizing" fad of all things Christian then in vogue, and the latter an anti-Sacramental olive branch to the Protestants - not all that surprising from a translation that, despite its literary merits (JRR Tolkien's (!) contributions come to mind), is nevertheless every bit the product of its baleful era, every bit the contemporary of Nostra Aetate and Unitatis Redintigratio.


    You are, of course, not alone in your specific criticisms nor in the more general gripe of seeming arbitrariness, which is the spinal column of Gleason Archer's very articulate complaints (see the linked article/review). I am not at home now, and so I cannot consult my fully annotated edition of JB to see whether the editor provides some excuse for this atypical preference for simple denotation rather than the more familiar metaphorical language. I do agree that such things as these can make reading the JB quite a frustrating experience.


    Offline Disputaciones

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    « Reply #11 on: October 01, 2014, 11:32:04 PM »
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  • Quote from: claudel
    Quote from: Disputaciones
    Does there still exist any book of the NT today 100% complete in Greek, as in, 100% original, or have they all been lost?


    What you mean by "100 percent original" isn't ideally clear. If you mean MSS that can be dated in their entirety to the late first century, the answer is no. I believe that even the oldest extant fragments of NT books date from after the fifth century, but this is not a matter I've looked into for some years and so I might easily be wrong. But I am quite sure that nothing earlier than 250 A.D. exists for any part of the NT whatsoever (contrast this with the pre-Christian Essene scrolls for some OT books).

    The old Catholic Encyclopedia's article "New Testament" is useful in many ways. Of course, being now a century old, it contains no information about anything of a bibliophilic character that has come to light in the past hundred years (i.e., quite a lot). I recommend you read it.


    Sorry for being ambiguous, I wasn't sure how to ask the question.

    Yes, I meant that, and if there are at least Greek copies 100% identical to the originals.

    Offline claudel

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    « Reply #12 on: October 02, 2014, 06:06:48 AM »
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  • Quote from: Disputaciones
    Yes, I meant that, and if there are at least Greek copies 100% identical to the originals.


    In that case, asked and answered. Have a look at the recommended article.

    Offline Disputaciones

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    « Reply #13 on: October 02, 2014, 12:14:53 PM »
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  • Quote from: claudel
    Quote from: Disputaciones
    Yes, I meant that, and if there are at least Greek copies 100% identical to the originals.


    In that case, asked and answered. Have a look at the recommended article.


    Ok.

    So which one do you think is the best, or most accurate/reliable version of the Bible in English?

    Offline BTNYC

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    « Reply #14 on: October 02, 2014, 12:27:37 PM »
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  • Quote from: Disputaciones
    Quote from: claudel
    Quote from: Disputaciones
    Yes, I meant that, and if there are at least Greek copies 100% identical to the originals.


    In that case, asked and answered. Have a look at the recommended article.


    Ok.

    So which one do you think is the best, or most accurate/reliable version of the Bible in English?


    I know this question is directed to Claudel, but I thought I'd make my own recommendation.

    I think the Challoner Douray-Rheims (with Bishop Challoner's annotations and commentaries) is the best Catholic Bible in English. The version I own also has beautfilly detailed maps and an illustrated glossary, so that's the specific version of this Translation that I'd recommend. I believe that edition was put out by Baronius Press, but I don't have it handy at the moment to confirm.