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How about an example from the facts of history?
~ Here is +Fellay in his not-too-distant infamous AFD, regarding Vat.II:
4. The entire tradition of Catholic Faith must be the criterion and guide in understanding the teaching of the Second Vatican Council, which, in turn, enlightens - in other words deepens and subsequently makes explicit - certain aspects of the life and doctrine of the Church implicitly present within itself or not yet conceptually formulated(8).
(8) For example, like the teaching on the sacraments and the episcopacy in Lumen Gentium, no. 21.
[Note: LG 21 is one of the most poisonous parts of Vat.II]
~ And here he is just a couple of weeks ago, on Palm Sunday, 2014:
Pope John XXIII’s opening speech (October 11, 1962) and his allocution to the Sacred College on December 23, 1962, obviously attribute to Vatican Council II a very particular, so-called “pastoral” intention, by which the Magisterium is supposed to “express the Faith of the Church according to the modalities of investigation and literary formulation of modern thought.”
In the event the implications are not obvious, allow me to make an observation. In the former quote, the abominable AFD (which he says he has 'withdrawn' but he has not abjured and he has not refuted, and it still hangs heavy on the wall where it was first erected two years ago albeit hidden from view for an entire year -- a fact he has never bothered to explain in any way whatsoever), +Fellay clearly says that we should all revere the august words of LG 21, for they exemplify the abiding principle to which he alludes as something beneficial to the Church, that some implicit doctrine and aspects of [Christian] life are not yet conceptually formulated.
However, only one year after this deplorable Declaration came to light, he is singing quite a different tune, for in his critical mention of the M.R.S. and later allocution of John XXIII, as if the conceptual formulation of doctrine is suddenly something that should not be written with the modalities of investigation of modern thought.
What is the possible connection between these things? First it's just fine to defer to LG 21, and then later it's not fine at all to defer to LG 21? And we're supposed to be okay with that? Just because he says so? Or, do the Menzingen-denizens reserve the exclusive right to determine when it is okay, and when it is NOT okay to defer to LG 21?
This is an insult to your intelligence.
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