I'm having a bit of trouble understanding the Olivet Discourse spoken by Our Lord in Matthew 24 as to how it is to be properly understood. I understand there are a number of differing eschatological views regarding this topic (e.g. partial preterist, full preterist, partial futurist, full futurist, etc.). Matthew 24:4-34 seems to refer to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD (particularly Matt. 24:34) while 24:35-25:46 appears to refer to His future return and final Judgment of the world, however there are some verses between Matthew 24:4-34 which also seem to refer to Christ's second coming and the final Judgment (for example Matt. 24:9-14 and Matt. 24:21-31) but, I am unsure of that interpretation.

What is the traditional view of the Church on how the Olivet Discourse and its eschatology should be understood?

Many skeptics/atheists/non-Christians will claim that Jesus wrongly predicted His return/second coming to occur in the 1st century based on His words in Matthew 24:34 - "Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place." Could anyone explain to me the proper understanding of this verse or provide some resources that do so?

Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

I'm having a bit of trouble understanding the Olivet Discourse spoken by Our Lord in Matthew 24 as to how it is to be properly understood. I understand there are a number of differing eschatological views regarding this topic (e.g. partial preterist, full preterist, partial futurist, full futurist, etc.). Matthew 24:4-34 seems to refer to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD (particularly Matt. 24:34) while 24:35-25:46 appears to refer to His future return and final Judgment of the world, however there are some verses between Matthew 24:4-34 which also seem to refer to Christ's second coming and the final Judgment (for example Matt. 24:9-14 and Matt. 24:21-31) but, I am unsure of that interpretation.

What is the traditional view of the Church on how the Olivet Discourse and its eschatology should be understood?

Many skeptics/atheists/non-Christians will claim that Jesus wrongly predicted His return/second coming to occur in the 1st century based on His words in Matthew 24:34 - "Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place." Could anyone explain to me the proper understanding of this verse or provide some resources that do so?

Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

Hi!, well just to begin with this very interesting issue, i´ll quote what the commentary of Mons. Straubinger says (this is perhaps the best Sapnish version).

On verse 34 he says: "According to St. Jerome, He´d mean the whole mankind, according to others, the Jєωιѕн people, or just the contemporaries of Our Lord who´d see fullfilled this prophesy in the destruction of the holy city. Fillion, having in mind the divine Prophet refers parallely both to the destruction of Jerusalem and to the times of His second comming, applies these words firstly  to those men who were going to be the withnessses of the ruin of Jerusalem and of the Temple, and secondly  to that generation "who will be present  in the last historical events of the world",  that is to that generation who will see the signs just anounced here (Lc. 21,28). Lastly, according to other solid opinion, which does not exclude the precedent, "this generation" is that of the pharisees, escribs and doctors to whom the Lord named with those same words in His great discourse of the previous chapter (23;36).

I think it is important to have in mind that the destruction of Jerusalem is what is called the type (figure) of the end of the world (anti-type). Our Lord seemed to have refered to both in the whole chapter.

I don´t know. Just some texts waiting for furhter comments!

Cristian