Knowing Anthony (only from his posting), I imagine he's just asking why and not questioning its validity.
Prots try to turn Yahweh into some proper name, but the entire point of the expression by God was to say that He HAS NO NAME. Names define the essences of things, but God has no essence, only an existence, so to use "Yahweh" as if it were some kind of name directly contradicts what God was trying to reveal when He said, "I am Who am." Nevertheless, a designation for "I am Who am" (as referring to God) needs to be there as a placeholder for its appearance in various grammatical constructions, so the Hebrews inserted "Adonai" in place of Yahweh when reading or explicating the text, since the Divine Name (or, rather Non-Name) was ineffable and unknowable.
So, the bottom line is that it's a mistake to think of "Yahweh" as some kind of name, or, as you put it, the "Divine Name", when it's really a Divine Non-Name, i.e. a reference to God denying that He has a name at all.
This is probably the best and most succinct exposition on this question that I have ever seen. Kudos on this point.
Dare I tag on a corollary? The Kabbalistic Jews claim God has a name, they know it, and knowing it gives them power. How surprised those lying, thieving, perverted, genocidalists will be!
Topic: Why doesn't the Vulgate use YHWH (LORD)? (Read 2220 times)