In MM, light is sent along arms perpendicular and parallel to presumed motion with respect to the ether. Assuming the arms are equal length, with Lorentz contraction, the time parallel to motion turns out to be the same as the time perpendicular to motion. You can find this derivation on the web and in most undergrad physics textbooks that deal with relativity.
In a Sagnac device, light is sent along a rectangle in opposing directions. As I recall, the set it up so two sides of the rectangle were parallel to lines of latitude, and a fair distance apart. At different latitudes, they move due to earth's rotation and different speeds. Thus the light paths clockwise and counterclockwise are not equivalent. I didn't find this on the internet, but it works out. (It is a bit of algebra.) With Lorentz contraction you just get an extra factor close to 1 multiplying the time difference. Like I've been saying, this doesn't change the Sagnac results in any meaningful way.
Yes, the interferometers are not of the same type. They're all different. Sagnac, Michelson-Gale, Michelson-Morley, mathpages-fiber optic gyroscope. But that's not the point. The point is rather:
The Michelson-Gale experiment detects and measures the relative speed of the Michelson-Gale interferometer moving around the center of the earth. The Michelson-Morley experiment detects and measures the relative speed of the Michelson-Morley interferometer moving around the center of the sun --- ah, no, no, no, the Michelson-Morley interferometer does not detect any movement. The question is: Given Special Relativity, why is it possible (in principle, whichever type of interferometer used) to detect the relative movement of the apparatus around the center of the earth, but not the relative movement of the apparatus around the center of the sun? What is the difference between the two types of movement, that gives the reason why we do have an experiment to detect one while we do not have an experiment to detect the other. Aren't both movements in principle equal: An apparatus is moving around a distant center of some object. Shouldn't Special Relativity allow to detect either both movements or none? What's the problem of Dr Michelson? Why did he succeed in detecting one movement but not the other?
Neither the word 'earth' nor the word 'sun' appear in the postulates or the formulae of special relativity. Yet we have a strange asymmetry.
And again regarding c+v and c-v. Light goes at speed c in my reference frame.
Ok, light goes at c in your reference frame (and in any other reference frame).
If I have a target L1=100m away, it takes time t1=L1/c to get there. If I have another target at L2=101m, it takes t2=L2/c to get there. Believe it or not, that's true in relativity, too!
Yes, it is.
It doesn't matter if in the target was moving at speed v and happened to be at L2=101m when the light got there. Both the light (always moving at c) and the target (at v) are moving in my reference frame.
That's true.
But given the experiment on mathpages, the observer is the screen which shows the fringes (called 'end point' there). The target is that screen. The target is moving with respect to the reference frame which you called yours above (the one where the light source is fixed, called 'start point' there). Now, in Special Relativity, light moves at speed c with respect to the reference system where the light source is fixed, and at the same time also moves at speed c with respect to the reference system, where the screen is fixed. Sounds strange? Yes, sure. But that's the way it is in Special Relativity. Light moves at speed c with respect to both (to any) reference systems.
So I have a target at L and it's moving away at v, and light takes time t to reach it. While the light travelled a distance ct in my reference frame, the target travelled a distance vt and is now L+vt away in my reference frame. From ct = L+vt you get t = L/(c-v), even though light was always going at speed c.
Yes, the light is going at speed c with respect to the reference system where the start point rests. And with respect to the reference system where the end point rests, it is going at c + v (or c - v for the other beam). That's classically correct. But in Special Relativity, it has to be c (or c for the other beam). Because in Special Relativity light never goes faster than c but rather always equal to c, neither in the reference system of the start point nor in the reference system of the end point.
That's the reason why the mathpages-guy in the case of Special Relativity should replace c + v and c - v by c and c yielding zero displacement in fringes.
Special Relativity was designed to yield zero displacement in fringes for the Michelson-Morley experiment. No wonder that it yields zero displacement in fringes for the Michelson-Gale experiment, too. In principle, there is no difference between both experiments. A device moves around a distant point. Special Relativity knows nothing about planets, masses, or the solar system. How could Special Relativity be able to distinguish between a movement of an interferometer around the center of the earth and one around the center of the sun?