Note the contrary meaning Mith's post takes on when the teaching is misquoted as Mith (mistakenly?) did. Yet, correcting the quote according to the teaching by simply re-inserting the bolded words "without" and "cannot," we see within the Church's wording not only the unchangeability of it, but also the teaching's true meaning, which btw, Mith (underlined) expresses very clearly what the true teaching of the Church is.
"While the meaning of "without baptism or a desire for it" might be arguable in a vacuum, the meaning of "instrumental cause" is not. I therefore think it quite apt, knowing baptism is the instrumental cause of justification, to understand "without baptism or the desire for it" to mean that justification cannot be effected in a man who desires water baptism but who has not yet received it. This is consistent with it being an instrumental cause, whereas to maintain that no one can be justified without desiring to be baptized by water and then actually getting baptized by water is inconsistent with it being an instrumental cause."