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Author Topic: Where is the True Church with the Four Marks today? In sede-land, or in the RCC?  (Read 4496 times)

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Offline Pax Vobis

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Even the sedevacantists disagree among themselves. So I don't see which group has the mark of unity.
That’s not what Unity means, in this case.  Unity, as a mark of the Church, means unity of Faith (ie that all Catholics believe “that which has always been taught”, and accept all doctrines and laws of the Church).  Such unity is only found in Tradition, which upholds all tenets of the Faith, same as prior to V2. 

Disagreements over theological theories and matters which the Church hasnt settled yet…this is not disunity but simply a difference of opinion. Such have been part of church history since the beginning.

Offline AlNg

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That’s not what Unity means, in this case.  Unity, as a mark of the Church, means unity of Faith (ie that all Catholics believe “that which has always been taught”, and accept all doctrines and laws of the Church).  Such unity is only found in Tradition, which upholds all tenets of the Faith, same as prior to V2. 

Disagreements over theological theories and matters which the Church hasnt settled yet…this is not disunity but simply a difference of opinion. Such have been part of church history since the beginning.
I thought that there was an official teaching of the Catholic Church that the Catholic Church cannot promulgate a rite which is harmful to the Catholic faith? But there is disagreement and lack of unity on whether or not the NO Mass is harmful to the faith.  Fr. Anthony Cekada says that the new Mass:
Quote
(a) destroys Catholic doctrine in the minds of the faithful, and in particular, Catholic doctrine concerning the Holy Sacrifice of the Mass, the priesthood, and the Real Presence; and (b) permits or prescribes grave irreverence

Can the Catholic Church promulgate a rite which is harmful to the faith?


Offline JJoseph

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Here's the argument against a 66 year sede vacante which Mr. Ladislaus is laughably evading:
Note that: in a sede vacante, bishops retain their office (unless they die/resign) and thus their ordinary jurisdiction.

(1) In an extended sede vacante, no new episcopal appointments are possible.
(2) Therefore, all bishops appointed by the last Pope into office will eventually die.
(3) Therefore, the Church will eventually defect, when all episcopal offices become vacant.

Yeti's the only person who's even attempted to address this. To his argument: Yeti, the Bishops consecrated during the sede vacante period only had orders until the new Pope confirmed them. Only upon his confirmation did they enter office. Not to mention, the discipline of the Church in the pre-Tridentine period was slightly different, and did not always require Papal mandates to consecrate Bishops.

Pope Pius VI, Charitas: "this power of giving jurisdiction as a consequence of a new practice established now for several centuries and confirmed by general councils and even by concordats, has returned to its point of origin and does not belong in any way to metropolitans, but resides solely in the Apostolic See. So today the Pope as a duty of his office appoints bishops for each of the churches, and no lawful consecration may take place in the entire Catholic Church without the order of the Apostolic See (Trent, session 24, chap. 1, de Reformat.)."

Yeti mentioned the time period of 1268 to 1271 AD. Here is the law in place at that time, from the Ecuмenical Council of Lateran IV, in 1215 AD: "Bishops too, if they wish to avoid canonical punishment, should take care to promote to holy orders and to ecclesiastical dignities men who will be able to discharge worthily the office entrusted to them. Those who are immediately subject to the Roman pontiff shall, to obtain confirmation of their office, present themselves personally to him, if this can conveniently be done, or send suitable persons through whom a careful inquiry can be made about the process of the election and the persons elected. In this way, on the strength of the pontiff’s informed judgment, they may finally enter into the fullness of their office" 
https://www.papalencyclicals.net/councils/ecuм12-2.htm 

Pope Bl. Pius IX mentions this in one of his Encyclicals proving Papal Primacy of Jurisdiction from the Early Church and from Medieval Canons.

Anthony Padua, if you want to debate BOD/BOB, come to the "was Pope St. Pius X a heretic for teaching BOD/BOB" thread. You still haven't answered that main question, and your evasions of it are impossible. It is demonstrable St. Pius X wrote that Catechism. And he would indeed have been a heretic - which however is blasphemous and schismatic to say - if Dimondism is true and BOD heresy. Dimondism is the blasphemy.

Offline AnthonyPadua

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Here's the argument against a 66 year sede vacante which Mr. Ladislaus is laughably evading:
Note that: in a sede vacante, bishops retain their office (unless they die/resign) and thus their ordinary jurisdiction.

(1) In an extended sede vacante, no new episcopal appointments are possible.
(2) Therefore, all bishops appointed by the last Pope into office will eventually die.
(3) Therefore, the Church will eventually defect, when all episcopal offices become vacant.

Yeti's the only person who's even attempted to address this. To his argument: Yeti, the Bishops consecrated during the sede vacante period only had orders until the new Pope confirmed them. Only upon his confirmation did they enter office. Not to mention, the discipline of the Church in the pre-Tridentine period was slightly different, and did not always require Papal mandates to consecrate Bishops.

Pope Pius VI, Charitas: "this power of giving jurisdiction as a consequence of a new practice established now for several centuries and confirmed by general councils and even by concordats, has returned to its point of origin and does not belong in any way to metropolitans, but resides solely in the Apostolic See. So today the Pope as a duty of his office appoints bishops for each of the churches, and no lawful consecration may take place in the entire Catholic Church without the order of the Apostolic See (Trent, session 24, chap. 1, de Reformat.)."

Yeti mentioned the time period of 1268 to 1271 AD. Here is the law in place at that time, from the Ecuмenical Council of Lateran IV, in 1215 AD: "Bishops too, if they wish to avoid canonical punishment, should take care to promote to holy orders and to ecclesiastical dignities men who will be able to discharge worthily the office entrusted to them. Those who are immediately subject to the Roman pontiff shall, to obtain confirmation of their office, present themselves personally to him, if this can conveniently be done, or send suitable persons through whom a careful inquiry can be made about the process of the election and the persons elected. In this way, on the strength of the pontiff’s informed judgment, they may finally enter into the fullness of their office"
https://www.papalencyclicals.net/councils/ecuм12-2.htm

Pope Bl. Pius IX mentions this in one of his Encyclicals proving Papal Primacy of Jurisdiction from the Early Church and from Medieval Canons.

Anthony Padua, if you want to debate BOD/BOB, come to the "was Pope St. Pius X a heretic for teaching BOD/BOB" thread. You still haven't answered that main question, and your evasions of it are impossible. It is demonstrable St. Pius X wrote that Catechism. And he would indeed have been a heretic - which however is blasphemous and schismatic to say - if Dimondism is true and BOD heresy. Dimondism is the blasphemy.
You're extremely dishonest. Pius X never taught BoD. His original catechism didn't have it. You keep ignoring the information that others have posted while repeating your illogical arguments. :fryingpan:

Offline Pax Vobis

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But there is disagreement and lack of unity on whether or not the NO Mass is harmful to the faith.
:confused:  No there's not.


Offline Yeti

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Here's the argument against a 66 year sede vacante which Mr. Ladislaus is laughably evading:
Note that: in a sede vacante, bishops retain their office (unless they die/resign) and thus their ordinary jurisdiction.

(1) In an extended sede vacante, no new episcopal appointments are possible.
(2) Therefore, all bishops appointed by the last Pope into office will eventually die.
(3) Therefore, the Church will eventually defect, when all episcopal offices become vacant.

Yeti's the only person who's even attempted to address this. To his argument: Yeti, the Bishops consecrated during the sede vacante period only had orders until the new Pope confirmed them. Only upon his confirmation did they enter office. Not to mention, the discipline of the Church in the pre-Tridentine period was slightly different, and did not always require Papal mandates to consecrate Bishops.

Pope Pius VI, Charitas: "this power of giving jurisdiction as a consequence of a new practice established now for several centuries and confirmed by general councils and even by concordats, has returned to its point of origin and does not belong in any way to metropolitans, but resides solely in the Apostolic See. So today the Pope as a duty of his office appoints bishops for each of the churches, and no lawful consecration may take place in the entire Catholic Church without the order of the Apostolic See (Trent, session 24, chap. 1, de Reformat.)."

Yeti mentioned the time period of 1268 to 1271 AD. Here is the law in place at that time, from the Ecuмenical Council of Lateran IV, in 1215 AD: "Bishops too, if they wish to avoid canonical punishment, should take care to promote to holy orders and to ecclesiastical dignities men who will be able to discharge worthily the office entrusted to them. Those who are immediately subject to the Roman pontiff shall, to obtain confirmation of their office, present themselves personally to him, if this can conveniently be done, or send suitable persons through whom a careful inquiry can be made about the process of the election and the persons elected. In this way, on the strength of the pontiff’s informed judgment, they may finally enter into the fullness of their office"
https://www.papalencyclicals.net/councils/ecuм12-2.htm
.

There's a bit more to the article, which I'll get to in a second, but first of all you are claiming that these bishops in the list were merely sacrament machines consecrated to give confirmation and similar things. This doesn't appear to be the case, since they are listed as the bishops of those respective dioceses, and were consecrated to replace the ordinary who had died.Your claim that they exercised no jurisdiction until the new pope was elected and confirmed them seems to be lacking in proof.

There is also a difference between something that merely goes against a human law, and something that is inherently impossible. The question of whether a bishop can be appointed the ordinary of a diocese without being appointed by a pope is in either one of those doesn't seem to be certain. The list of those bishops being bishops of those dioceses seems to indicate that, if the human law of an ordinary being appointed by the pope is impossible to follow, then some other means can be used.

Moreover, the article goes on to quote Zapalena on the Great Western Schism, and ask how the bishops appointed during those 40 years possessed jurisdiction since it was unclear who the pope was. He answers it by saying that, even if one believed that all three of those papal claimants were non-popes, that the bishops would have received jurisdiction directly from Christ.

Offline Yeti

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With reference to the original question and the 4 marks of the true Church, reading through the posts on this topic, there seems to be a lot of division and disunity among Catholics on various topics. Even the sedevacantists disagree among themselves. So I don't see which group has the mark of unity.
.

The mark of unity in the Church doesn't mean that everyone will have the same opinions on everything and everyone will like everyone else like in Mr. Roger's Neighborhood. What it means is that Catholics are united in Faith, Worship and Law.

Traditional Catholics all agree that they must hold the same Faith that was taught before Vatican 2, worship the same way (using the traditional Mass), and adhere to the laws of the Church as they existed before Vatican 2.

Now, in a few of those cases there is disagreement about how exactly to apply the rule, but everyone has the intention of being united to the pre-Vatican 2 Church in all those areas, so practical differences are simply mistakes.

On the contrary, the new church is not united in any of those areas. Some members believe abortion is a sin; some do not. Some believe the Holy Eucharist is really Christ present; others (most) do not. Some believe the local diocesan Novus Ordo Mass is fine. Others believe a woman should be offering Mass at their parish. Some think you can worship with Jews, heretics, or pagans, as John Paul 2 and Benedict 16 and others did. About the only sense in which you can argue that the new church is united in law is that everyone is under "Pope" Francis, who has the power to excommunicate people from the church, which is a power he only uses against people who want to adhere to traditional Catholic teaching and reject the errors of Vatican 2.

Offline AlNg

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:confused:  No there's not.
I read that there are some Traditional Catholics and even some SV who attend TLM Mass at FSSP. But this is what I read about FSSP:
"Whether an FSSP supporter is willing to admit it or not, he implicitly accepts the orthodoxy, legitimacy and/or intrinsic goodness of the Novus Ordo
, ecuмenism, religious liberty, communion in the hand, liturgical dance, server-ettes, patently phony annulments, the new catechism, subjection to heretical bishops, legally-sanctioned intercommunion with eastern schismatics, etc., etc.....All FSSP members must accept the legitimacy and “doctrinal rectitude” of the Novus Ordo. "
https://traditionalmass.org/articles/article.php?id=5&catname=4


Offline AlNg

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Traditional Catholics all agree that they must hold the same Faith that was taught before Vatican 2, 
Before Vatican II, did Catholics hold that Baptism of Desire and Baptism of Blood were a valid Baptism?

Offline St Giles

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Before Vatican II, did Catholics hold that Baptism of Desire and Baptism of Blood were a valid Baptism?
They are mentioned briefly in a small book about the faith made around 1910.
"Be you therefore perfect, as also your heavenly Father is perfect."
"Seek first the kingdom of Heaven..."
"Every idle word that men shall speak, they shall render an account for it in the day of judgment"

Offline Yeti

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Before Vatican II, did Catholics hold that Baptism of Desire and Baptism of Blood were a valid Baptism?
.

Before Vatican II, all Catholics believed what the Church taught about Baptism of Desire and Baptism of Blood, which you can find in every pre-Vatican 2 book on the Faith where this subject is treated. The only people who did not accept this were a small group of a few dozen crazy weirdos in a small town in Massachusetts and the one, excommunicated priest whom they followed. And that was only a decade or two before Vatican 2, and continued afterwards. Before the 1940s, or 1930s at the earliest, their ideas had been unheard of in nearly 2000 years of Catholic tradition.

I am responding to humor you, but really, if you want to have a discussion about these ideas, you should respond to the objections people have made to your ideas, including me. You have made little attempt to address much of what I have written.

Perhaps, instead of combative, drive-by questions such as the one I just answered, you could tell us a little about what you believe. For example, do you believe there is anything wrong with Vatican 2? The new Mass? The new code of canon law? Do you have any objection to anything said by any "pope" starting with John XXIII to the present time? What do you think about people who believe the changes in the Church have been an abandonment of the Faith? Do you believe the Vatican 2 teaching on Religious Liberty goes against Quanta Cura and the other encyclicals particularly in the 19th century where the popes condemned religious liberty? Do you believe it was a sin for the post-Vatican 2 "popes" to participate actively in false, heretical, and even pagan worship?


Offline Mark 79

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Why are you guys feeding an obvious troll and liar?

Offline Pax Vobis

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I read that there are some Traditional Catholics and even some SV who attend TLM Mass at FSSP.
Then they aren't real Traditionalists, even if they "identify" as such.

Offline Ladislaus

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Before Vatican II, all Catholics believed what the Church taught about Baptism of Desire and Baptism of Blood, which you can find in every pre-Vatican 2 book on the Faith where this subject is treated. The only people who did not accept this were a small group of a few dozen crazy weirdos in a small town in Massachusetts and the one, excommunicated priest whom they followed. And that was only a decade or two before Vatican 2 ...

"all Catholics" believed lots of things leading up to Vatican II.  Do you really think that Vatican II came out of nowhere ... when on some morning in 1962 the entire world just fell into apostasy, where the same theologians whom you uphold as effectively a rule of faith in 1961, were suddenly apostates by 1963 and then their consensus meant nothing?  Those same theologians ALL, without perhaps the single exception of Bishop Guerard des Lauriers, accepted the the teaching of Vatican II as Catholic truth, and taught it as such.

So these were the crazies, and it wasn't Cushing who was a manifest heretic, Cushing who said, "No salvation outside the Church?  Nonsense."  And nearly the entire world believed that EENS was "nonsense" leading up to Vatican II.  Father Feeney only found two bishops in the entire world who affirmed EENS dogma, and this was well before he later formulated his position regarding Baptism of Desire.

You SVs have a bizarre self-contradictory position rooted in the Cekadist theory that the theologians are somehow infallible.  But, then, if they're infallible, then you'd better listen to them, the same men in 1963 who were there in 1962 (with a handful of exceptions, those who had died in the interim).  Msgr. Fenton, an actual theologian, denounced Cekadism as a "bizarre" theory.  So, who are the "crazies"?

Look at yourself now.  SVs can be dismissed as a handful of "crazies" today, and they are in most circles.  I would venture to say that the number of "Feeneyites" (and similar) outnumber SVs worldwide.

For 700 years, every theologian taught the position of St. Augustine regarding the fate of unbaptized children ... until a "crazy" named Abelard came along and challenged it.  But then St. Thomas and other agreed with him, and so Limbo became by far the majority opinion, with very few holdouts.  So which theologians were infallible, the ones before Abelard or the ones after him?

EENS-denial is in fact THE theological cause of Vatican II and every single error in Vatican II derives from the EENS denial.  No one but Father Feeney saw this before Vatican II, when the Church appeared to be flourishing, with churches being built in record numbers, overflowing seminaries and convents ... but there was a deep rot that only Father Feeney saw.

In fact, those of you who hold your position on EENS are in complete self-contradiction (prescinding from BoD per se).  Most SVs, when asked about what is heretical in V2, respond first, almost 100% of the time, that it's the V2 ecclesiology.  Except V2 ecclesiology flows logically from the EENS position held by most of the SV clergy.

MAJOR:  There's no salvation outside the Church.  DOGMA.
MINOR:  Protestants, schismatics, and even infidels can be saved without first converting to Catholicism.  (held by +Lefebvre and nearly all the SV clergy)
CONCLUSION:  Protestans, schismatics, and even infidels can be in the Church (somehow).

QED: Vatican II ecclesiology in a nutshell.

I don't understand how some of your are so blind as not to see this.  You're walking contradictions.

Offline Ladislaus

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Here's another blatant SV contradiction.  SVs condemn Father Feeney for his disobedience to Cushing and his Jesuit superiors.  Well, according to the principles of SVism, Cushing was not the Bishop (Cardinal Archbishop) of Boston and Father Feeney's Jesuit superiors were not the superior.  They were clearly manifest heretics according to SV principles, with Cushing repeatedly denying EENS dogma publicly, "No salvation outside the Church?  Nonsense", and the Jesuit superiors making even more blatant denials of EENS (read the history).  And they were called out and rebuked by Father Feeney et al. ... but remained pertinacious.  So by SV principles, Cushing had vacated his episcopal see and the Jesuit superiors their positions, since they were no longer members of the Church due to manifest heresy.