Idiot, you need to actually understand things in a Catholic context. Like a buffoon, you read words, look them up in Webster's English dictionary, and then pontificate about theological matters of which you know absolutely nothing. It's heretical to state that a Bishop without jurisdiction cannot validly confer orders. In fact, if that's the case, the SSPX bishops are also invalid. At various times in Church history, the Church has received back into the fold schismatic/heretical bishops who had in turn been consecrated by the same ... without requiring even so much as a conditional ordination/consecration.
All you are actually doing but apparently don't even realize it, is admitting that cuм ex is no longer in force, and I agree. It should be well known among the sedes that Pope St. Pius X abrogated it, but they insist it is still the law. My point is, as I said,
"if you believe cuм ex is still in force...." then +Thuc, per cuм ex, had no power to confer orders and per the direction given in cuм ex, as a repented heretic, he was to be sentenced
"to sequestration in any Monastery or other religious house in order to perform perpetual penance upon the bread of sorrow and the water of affliction." That is what cuм ex says.
Topic: What is the source of sedevacantist bishops' jurisdiction? (Read 10443 times)