What I said has always been the Church teaching on the infallibility of Ecuмenical Councils. Not my problem that the only one you've ever heard of is V1.
Prove it.
So far, all you and 2V and Lad have done is make indisputable false claims that the Church has always taught that all councils are infallible ipso facto.
Well, if it's always been a teaching of the Church, then why hasn't even one of you posted at least one of those teachings of the Church?
I will answer for you - because the Church has NEVER taught such a thing, there is no such teaching which is why none of you has been able to post it - yet like a stuck needle, you just keep repeating the same error. Do you think that repeating the same error over and over makes it truth?
By your logic the 1st Council of Nicaea was not Ecuмenical as the Pope was not present and didn't define any dogma himself, only agreeing to what the others defined.
That is not my logic at all - but by your logic, V2 was an infallible council because that is the teaching of the Church - which even you do not believe even though you keep foolishly insisting it to be a teaching of the Church.