So here's a scenario to ponder (thought occurred to me on the thread about Confirmation ... though I've thought about this before).
Let's say that I believe that Jorge is the Pope. Now let's say that I have two chapels near me, one SSPX and the other Resistance (or Independent R&R of some kind ... not to mention SV alternatives).
Can I receive valid absolution from the Resistance priest when I could just as well go to the SSPX priest? SSPX priest has jurisdiction to validly absolve (from Pope Jorge). But the Resistance priest does not. Why is there a sufficient necessity there for me to go to a priest without jurisdiction when I could go to one that has it? If I go to the Resistance priest without such necessity, would I validly receive absolution?

Your question implicitly assumes a false premise: namely, that a true, traditionally-ordained sacerdotal priest cannot validly absolve without permission from a Bishop. This is false.
A validly-ordained traditional Roman Catholic priest has the power to absolve
normal (non-reserved) sins through his ordination itself. He is ontologically a priest. As such, he is transformed and conformed to the image of Christ. He is not just some employee of a diocese or a groveling subject of "Pope Francis." Although the New Rite priests are ordained to be such (as the words of their rite indicate).
For traditionally and validly-ordained priests, only "reserved cases," as discussed in the docuмents of the Council of Trent, cannot be absolved by a simple priest, outside of a situation of necessity. But very few sins are "reserved" to higher authorities in 1917 Canon Law.