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Offline Neil Obstat

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The Second Vatican Council
« Reply #15 on: August 19, 2016, 09:36:55 PM »
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  • Quote from: An even Seven
    Quote from: songbird
    An even seven:  I'll let you talk to yourself.

    It's fine, but your lack of a proper response just shows me that you cannot refute what I said.

    Songbird is a little busy. Maybe you'd like to consider my reply?

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    Quote from: An even Seven
    Quote from: songbird
    Sure Vat. II was different!  Only suggestions.  Ratzinger, one of the 5, of the minority.  Very well planned to have a minority take over a "meeting".

    If by suggestions you mean exercising papal infallibility.

    Absolutely nothing in Vat.II rose to the level of papal infallibility. Modernists have been claiming the contrary ever since those days but they have never provided a single sound example.  Maybe you'd like to go over the same ground again?

    Quote
    Quote from: Closing Statement of Each Vatican II Docuмent
    “EACH AND EVERY ONE OF THE THINGS SET FORTH IN THIS DECREE HAS WON THE CONSENT OF THE FATHERS.  WE, TOO, BY THE APOSTOLIC AUTHORITY CONFERRED ON US BY CHRIST, JOIN WITH THE VENERABLE FATHERS IN APPROVING, DECREEING, AND ESTABLISHING THESE THINGS IN THE HOLY SPIRIT, AND WE DIRECT THAT WHAT HAS THUS BEEN ENACTED IN SYNOD BE PUBLISHED TO GOD’S GLORY… I, PAUL, BISHOP OF THE CATHOLIC CHURCH.”

    If you think that means infallible then you don't know what you're talking about.

    Quote
    Quote from: sonbird
    I don't have the definition of a "Council" in front of me.  BUT Councils came together to "fix" and to bring on new dogmas and with it they had to have definitions to prove.  I say definition(s) because more than one, of course, would all have in writing their thoughts to prove and  to define, of course using scripture and etc.

    The Councils actually define and put into a definition something that is of Divine revelation and has always been believed by the Church. They don't "bring on new Dogmas".

    Quote from: songbird
    Besides, why was Vatican I overlooked? It was not finished.  Why did they not just pick up where they left off?  My thoughts are, Mary is co-redemptorix.

    First, it seems Paul VI thought it was a continuation in a way.
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    Paul VI, Ecclesiam Suam: “It is precisely because the Second Vatican Council has the task of dealing once more with the doctrine de Ecclesia (of the Church) and of defining it, that it has been called the continuation and complement of the First Vatican Council.”

    When the Church re-convenes a council that had been adjourned but not closed, it takes a bit more than a pope having vague thoughts about a continuation.  Vat.II deliberately threw out the prepared schemas (authors among whom were Abp. Lefebvre) in an obvious move to SEPARATE Vat.II from Vat.I, and to take a new course.  It was openly proclaimed a "different council" and "a pastoral council." Never before in the history of the Church had there been a "pastoral council." We had had a Pastoral Symphony (Beethoven's), but not a pastoral council.  That was an entirely NEW CONCEPT, and as you have said, above, infallibility has to do with what the Church has always believed.
    Quote

    It also seems that he believed Vatican II was defining things.

    Pope Paul VI could go ahead and seem to believe whatever he wanted to, but that has no effect on whether the Church was defining anything. It takes a lot more than the pope's vague subjective dreaming to effect definition, in case you had any confusion on the matter.
    Quote

    Second, Mary as "Co-Redemptrix" could not be defined at Vatican I as it is, because Trent taught that Jesus ALONE is the Redeemer.

    So you're a Protestant, correct?  Because that's what Protestants say about priests. They don't want any intermediary between God and man but for Jesus ALONE.

    BTW: Catholics usually don't call him "Jesus alone."  That's Protestant lingo.  So you must be a Protestant.
    Quote

    Bottom line is, if the New World Church were still the Catholic Church AND their "popes" legitimate, Vatican II would be infallible. All the requirements are met for infallibility.

    Wrong.  All the requirements were not met for infallibility. Nothing in Vat.II is infallible.  Nothing whatsoever. (Some previously defined things were mentioned but there was no new dogmatic definition at Vat.II.)

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    Offline songbird

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    « Reply #16 on: August 19, 2016, 09:59:15 PM »
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  • Thank You, Neil.


    Offline Nishant

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    « Reply #17 on: August 20, 2016, 11:16:14 AM »
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  • An even seven, you're incorrect. The Immaculate Virgin Mother of God is true Co-redemptrix with Christ and true Mediatrix of all graces, as several Popes teach. Pope Benedict XV says, "it can be said that together with Christ She redeemed the whole human race". And Pope St Pius X clearly explains, "She merited congruously for us, as they say, everything that Christ merited for us condignly". Fr. Garrigou Lagrange explains these terms - Christ alone offered to God in His own Person a sacrifice that atoned for sin in strict justice, while our Immaculate Mother offered Her own self together with Him as a most becoming offering which He in His mercy deigned to accept. The Blessed Mother, at the foot of the Cross, suffered more than all martyrs and underwent a true white martyrdom sharing mystically in His pain. This is the reason She is true Mother of us all, full of every grace, and Mediatrix. It is in this way also that, as the Pope said, She redeemed us together with Christ. He who denies this Papal teaching should never cite a Papal text again.

    Offline Ladislaus

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    « Reply #18 on: August 20, 2016, 01:37:58 PM »
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  • I guess it all depends on how one understands the term Co-redemptorix.  Obviously it would have to be in a subordinate role to that of Christ's redemption.  As long as that dependency and subordination is understood, then the term is perfectly fine.  If the term is made to suggest that they equally redeemed, then it's inappropriate, since only God could redeem the infinite offenses committed against God (cf. St. Anselm Cur Deus homo?).

    Quote from: Nishant
    An even seven, you're incorrect. The Immaculate Virgin Mother of God is true Co-redemptrix with Christ and true Mediatrix of all graces, as several Popes teach. Pope Benedict XV says, "it can be said that together with Christ She redeemed the whole human race". And Pope St Pius X clearly explains, "She merited congruously for us, as they say, everything that Christ merited for us condignly". Fr. Garrigou Lagrange explains these terms - Christ alone offered to God in His own Person a sacrifice that atoned for sin in strict justice, while our Immaculate Mother offered Her own self together with Him as a most becoming offering which He in His mercy deigned to accept. The Blessed Mother, at the foot of the Cross, suffered more than all martyrs and underwent a true white martyrdom sharing mystically in His pain. This is the reason She is true Mother of us all, full of every grace, and Mediatrix. It is in this way also that, as the Pope said, She redeemed us together with Christ. He who denies this Papal teaching should never cite a Papal text again.

    Offline Neil Obstat

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    « Reply #19 on: August 20, 2016, 04:23:30 PM »
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  • Quote from: An even Seven
    Quote from: Neil Obstat
    Quote
    Quote from: Closing Statement of Each Vatican II Docuмent
    “EACH AND EVERY ONE OF THE THINGS SET FORTH IN THIS DECREE HAS WON THE CONSENT OF THE FATHERS.  WE, TOO, BY THE APOSTOLIC AUTHORITY CONFERRED ON US BY CHRIST, JOIN WITH THE VENERABLE FATHERS IN APPROVING, DECREEING, AND ESTABLISHING THESE THINGS IN THE HOLY SPIRIT, AND WE DIRECT THAT WHAT HAS THUS BEEN ENACTED IN SYNOD BE PUBLISHED TO GOD’S GLORY… I, PAUL, BISHOP OF THE CATHOLIC CHURCH.”

    If you think that means infallible then you don't know what you're talking about.

    Tell me then, what makes all the other Councils infallible?

    The other 20 Ecuмenical Councils of the Church (I'm presuming that's what you're referring to) were only infallible in regards to their dogmatic definition and/or their pronouncement of "anathema" against anyone who denies the foregoing, whatever that particular doctrine was.

    The words "anathema sit" do not occur in Vatican II, in case you missed that point.

    Quote
    Quote from: Neil Obstat
    Quote

    Second, Mary as "Co-Redemptrix" could not be defined at Vatican I as it is, because Trent taught that Jesus ALONE is the Redeemer.

    So you're a Protestant, correct?  Because that's what Protestants say about priests. They don't want any intermediary between God and man but for Jesus ALONE.

    First, my quote comes from Trent:
    Quote
    Council of Trent, Sess. 25, On Invocation, Veneration and Relics of Saints, and on Sacred Images: “… the saints, who reign with Christ, offer up their prayers to God for men; and that it is good and useful to invoke them suppliantly and, in order to obtain favors from God through His Son JESUS CHRIST OUR LORD, WHO ALONE IS OUR REDEEMER and Savior… And they must also teach that images of Christ, the virgin mother of God and the other saints should be set up and kept… But if anyone should teach or maintain anything contrary to these decrees, let him be anathema.”

    Second, according to you Trent is protestant. The Holy Mother definitely had a unique role in the Redemption but to say it was "co" means that it was the same or on equal ground with Jesus. That is anathema.
    Quote from: Neil Obstat
    BTW: Catholics usually don't call him "Jesus alone."  That's Protestant lingo.  So you must be a Protestant.

    You are so deceptive. "Jesus Christ our Lord, who alone is our Redeemer", Trent said that.

    Here I am, trying to be precise and you're accusing me of being deceptive. Interesting.

    Trent did not say "Jesus ALONE" like you did, and like Protestants do.  Your quote of Trent says something very Catholic, instead:  "Jesus Christ our Lord, who alone..."  Notice the difference?  Do I have to explain the difference?

    Quote
    Quote from: Neil Obstat
    Quote
    Bottom line is, if the New World Church were still the Catholic Church AND their "popes" legitimate, Vatican II would be infallible. All the requirements are met for infallibility.

    Wrong.  All the requirements were not met for infallibility. Nothing in Vat.II is infallible.  Nothing whatsoever. (Some previously defined things were mentioned but there was no new dogmatic definition at Vat.II.)

    Prove it was not infallible (if those were legitimate popes of course).

    We know Vat.II was not infallible by the very admission of the popes at the time and the official statements provided by representatives of the Council.  It was a DIFFERENT KIND of Council, and one of the differences is that it contains nothing infallible.  (As I said before, there are infallible doctrines mentioned but they had long been previously defined, so they were nothing newly defined at Vat.II.) There was a Theological explanatory note issued after it was over only due to the pressing questions of Catholic journalists who were totally confused with the newfangled verbiage that was used throughout Vat.II, and due to the fact that the bishops and theologians they consulted assured them that there was nothing newly defined anywhere in the "pastoral" docuмents, because as the opening speech of John XXIII said, there would be no more condemnation of error, but (something else to take its place)* instead. The Note said that previously defined doctrines remain so, but in regards to anything new in Vat.II, they would have to make reservations.

    They were not talking about making reservations for dinner.

    BTW condemnation of error is what "anathema sit" does.  That's why there were no anathemas in Vat.II.

    *Do you know what the "something else" was, to take the place of "anathema sit?"

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    Offline Viva Cristo Rey

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    « Reply #20 on: August 21, 2016, 07:32:35 AM »
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  • The Vatican II council is a new false religion.  Many liberal bishops have been working against the Church to condone divorce, contraceptives, abortion to make way for ɧoɱosɛҳųαƖity and women priestesses.  They are destroying beautiful Churches and selling off Church property to enemies Of Jesus Christ.  Many live a lifestyle that is of the rich and famous and yet always asking for more money.  They take the silver from the government and teach the laity that perversion and lust is love.  They promote and condone abortion while bragging how they are against it.
    We have a pope who says he isn't pope but a bishop while spreading false teachings through liberal secular media.  Many modern Churches are being built ugly barren without statues of the Sacred Heart of Jesus and Our Blessed Mother, tabernacle in different room with services in many different vernaculars and ethnic groups which segregates and divides.  There are stand alone parishes that cater to sɛҳuąƖ perversion and sodomy as the norm.
    Even Pope Paul vi regretted Vatican II .  
    May God bless you and keep you

    Offline songbird

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    « Reply #21 on: August 21, 2016, 07:35:12 PM »
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  • You are so right, viva!  "They" are making way for the nєω ωσrℓ∂ σr∂єr, where there is no order, anything goes!  It is all biblical.  Christ's church is going to calvary and will resurrect.

    Offline Stubborn

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    « Reply #22 on: August 22, 2016, 04:32:54 AM »
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  • Quote from: An even Seven
    Quote from: Stubborn
    Quote from: An even Seven

    A catechism is not part of the OUM. Although it does contain a lot of things taught by the Magisterium.
    There is no Justification for disregarding a council of the Church (were it real).
    Regardless even all the necessary requirements are fulfilled for solemn Magisterial pronouncements. There is another thread going on right now about come and join the discussion.

    It was a real council, it was a Pastoral Council.  

    It wasn't a "real" council of the Catholic Church. It was a real council of your false "church" so in a way you are right.

    It was, as the OP explains, a real Council of the Catholic Church. It was not, contrary to what you were taught, infallible.

    And for the record, I was raised a trad through the revolution, attending only a very few NO services in my youth and even then, only as we searched for the True Mass in Diocesan churches - during which we left the service either during or well before the sermon - after that, my first and only full NO service I can remember attending, was a funeral NO for a work acquaintance in 1999. So while you can accuse me of any number of things, please refrain from accusing me of belonging to the false church or of the false church being my Church.

    Consider that the main reason why the overwhelming majority of people  accepted the NO in the first place is because they imagined that they had to do so, that they had to accept this revolution because the pope himself commanded it, and their idea is that they can be saved only by obedience to the pope regardless of what the he says.

    This erroneous idea did not arise out of some rumor or out of thin air, rather, this idea that whatever the pope, and by extension the magisterium said, was automatically always infallible - and that blind obedience to whatever they said is absolutely mandatory, was deliberately "infiltrated into the seminaries, the catechisms and all the manifestations of the church" as +ABL said, probably since at least the early 1900s, and this infiltration of error occurred mainly through the teachings of those certain 'well respected' 20th century theologians who taught the same thing about infallibility that you are posting, as if it is a teaching of the Church. You must unlearn this error that helped fuel the revolution in a major way.  



    Quote from: An even Seven

    Quote from: Stubborn

    Quote from: An even Seven

    Show me where Vat. I taught that the Magisterium can be in error in any form.

    V1 did not itemize those times when the magisterium can be in error, it decreed those times when the magisterium is infallible. V1. by decreeing those occasions when and in what respect the pope / magisterium cannot err, admits, in effect, that in all other areas of their vast prerogatives, the pope / magisterium is completely fallible
    .
    It's true that the pope is fallible in his private capacity but that Teaching Authority AKA Magisterium is always infallible.
    Quote
    Vatican Council Session 3, Chapter 3, #8: Wherefore, by divine and catholic faith all those things are to be believed which are contained in the word of God as found in scripture and tradition, and which are proposed by the church as matters to be believed as divinely revealed, whether by her solemn judgment or in her ordinary and universal magisterium.

    Anything that is taught to us from any source that either contains error or is not contained in Divine Revelation is not part of the Magisterium.

    One of the problems you have here is, you start out asking the wrong question when you asked: "Show me where Vat. I taught that the Magisterium can be in error in any form." Your question should have been along the lines of; "show me these conditions for infallibility you say that V1 taught" - which I did. And if you know of these conditions yet persist in claiming the magisterium is always infallible, then all I can say is you are very wrong and you need to study V1's teachings in the matter.

    FYI, this debate is not about the underlined in your red quote because we are in agreement about that, this debate is about the conditions for infallibility that V1 laid out and are to be found just prior to your underlined which you apparently do not understand.

    We know which teachings are infallible because V1 teaches that it is those teachings "which are contained in the word of God as found in scripture and tradition, and which are proposed by the church as matters to be believed as divinely revealed..." - nothing that came out of V2 meets these requirements from V1 that I've italicized for your benefit.

    Pardon my criticism here but you underlining what you did is akin to the BODers reading nothing else in the whole of Trent except the words; "or without the desire thereof", and then claiming that's Trent defining a BOD. Please read, understand and accept those requirements I've italicized. I'm not trying to be facetious when I say that I realize this will be most difficult for you.

    1) That the magisterium can, did and do teach error is proved by the magisterium itself after V2. Trying to claim otherwise is adding your own personal requirements to the doctrine of infallibility as decreed by V1.
    2) That the Pope and Church Councils are not always infallible is proved by V2 itself - again, I understand completely that this is completely contrary to what you've learned about infallibility. As +ABL said about this error as regards infallibility: "After all of these liberal ideas have been infiltrated into the seminaries, the catechisms and all the manifestations of the church, I am now being asked to align myself with these liberal ideas." I complied some of his quotes in this post



     
    Quote from: An even Seven

    Quote from: Stubborn
    I understand this one is difficult for a lot of folks to swallow, but it is actually pretty basic when you read V1 and accept what it teaches - the problem seems to be in the unlearning of the errors you've learned. Stick with V1 alone - I am not inventing anything, I am merely reiterating V1's teaching.

    I understand that it's hard for someone to believe that the Church's Magisterium is Infallible, it's pretty basic when you believe that Christ would not have given us a Teaching Authority that could teach errors. It would also be easy to believe this error if you thought that just about everything written by a Catholic is part of the Magisterium.............


    The rest of your reply is based off the wrong understanding of infallibility, as +ABL correctly stated above, you are repeating the liberal ideas of what you've learned regarding infallibility is, and not what V1 taught. As +ABL noted;  "Infallibility is extremely limited, only bearing on very specific cases which Vatican I has very well defined and detailed", which is why I asked you to try to "unlearn" the errors you've learned as regards infallibility and stick strictly with V1's clear teaching on the subject.

    "But Peter and the apostles answering, said: We ought to obey God, rather than men." - Acts 5:29

    The Highest Principle in the Church: "We are first of all under obedience to God, and only then under obedience to man" - Fr. Hesse


    Offline Stubborn

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    « Reply #23 on: August 22, 2016, 07:27:30 AM »
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  • I recently came across this about papal infallibility. It's from a book written in 1916 by Fr. O'Hare named:
    "The Facts About Luther" pages 164-166
    Emphasis mine.



    Quote

    There is hardly a teaching of the Catholic Church that has been so grievously misrepresented by those who profess to be enlightened ministers of the Gospel, and so strangely misapprehended by [Catholics and] our separated brethren, as the infallibility of the Pope. [Catholics and] non-Catholics have been taught and many of them labor under the impression that Papal Infallibility is a new doctrine of the Church, that it imparts to the Pope the extraordinary gift of inspiration, makes him impeccable, confers the right to trespass on civil authority, and, even to play fast and loose with the Commandments of God. These and other equally ridiculous conceptions are presented in the most plausible and spicy manner to a gullible public, ever ready to swallow without a qualm any statement, no matter how preposterous, provided it reviles and injures the Church of the living God. The promoters of the campaign of misrepresentation are jealous of the Pope's authority, and, like the father of Protestantism, resort to every means, no matter how unfair, to throw obstacles in the way to keep people from entering the one sheepfold of the One great Shepherd of Souls. If, however, such a thing as Church unity could be effected among themselves and their hundred and more warring religious organizations, we imagine it would be no time before Protestantism would attempt to have a Pope of its own.

    All who are anxious to know what Papal Infallibility *really* means are advised to consult the decrees of the Vatican Council held on July 18, 1870, over which Pius IX. presided, surrounded by nearly 700 bishops gathered together from, all over the world, representing more than 30 nations and more than 250,000,000 Christians. In that general Council, the twentieth held by the Church, it was solemnly and officially defined that Catholics are bound to believe that the Pope is infallible only when he speaks ex cathedra, that is, from the chair of Peter, 1) in discharge of his office as supreme teacher of the Universal Church; 2) by virtue of his supreme Apostolic authority; 3) defining a doctrine, giving an absolutely final decision regarding faith or morals ; 4) addressing the Universal Church; 5) binding her to hold the doctrine he so defines.

    When this doctrine is rightly understood, it means, to put it briefly, that God will keep the Pope from teaching error and falsehood, in faith or morals, when he acts as head of the Universal Church. The power of the Pope then is far from being, as so many suppose, arbitrary, absolute, and despotic.

    It is rightly limited in many respects and there is nothing in it to disturb or make any one think that the Pontiff is at liberty to change the Scriptures, to alter the Divine law or impose doctrines not contained in the original revelation completed by Christ in the beginning of the Church. Acting in his private capacity, as a temporal sovereign or as Bishop of the diocese of Rome, the Pope, having free-will and being human, can err in morals or in judgment. He is not impeccable and it is false to allege that he claims to be. He cannot make right wrong or wrong right. His authority like the Kingdom of Christ, is "not of this world." His jurisdiction belongs to spiritual matters, and is always for good, for truth, for the cause of Christ, for the welfare of souls, for the promotion of religion.

    It is silly, then, in the highest degree of silliness, to be alarmed at the teaching of the Catholic Church on Papal Infallibility, and allege that this doctrine puts one's intellect and conscience in a state of thraldom and servitude. The privilege enjoyed by the Pope cannot be exercised arbitrarily. It is used only after study and prayer and regard for the welfare of the Universal Church, and then it must fulfill all the five conditions already enumerated and demanded by the dogma, as defined by the Vatican Council. Then Papal decisions in faith and morals are so guided by Divine Providence, according to Christ's own promise, as ever to be infallibly true; and, to the farthest extremities of the world every faithful Christian admits in his heart what every loyal son of the Church obeys in his act. It is not the man, remember, that is infallible, it is Jesus Christ; and Jesus Christ determines what that man, who holds the keys, shall teach when "he feeds the lambs and sheep" of his Master. Far then from arousing opposition, the doctrine of Papal Infallibility, which is the keystone in the arch of Catholic faith, and which has preserved her marvelous unity of belief throughout the world from the beginning, ought to command the unqualified admiration of every reflecting mind.

    "But Peter and the apostles answering, said: We ought to obey God, rather than men." - Acts 5:29

    The Highest Principle in the Church: "We are first of all under obedience to God, and only then under obedience to man" - Fr. Hesse

    Offline songbird

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    « Reply #24 on: August 22, 2016, 10:39:15 PM »
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  • Thank you so much, Stubborn, for this post.  It is very critical for us to have full knowledge of Papal Infallibility.  And Thank you to Cardinal Manning and those who worked so hard to see this happen before war broke out.

    Offline Neil Obstat

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    « Reply #25 on: August 23, 2016, 01:02:59 AM »
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  • Attempting to have a conversation with a dogmatic sedevacantist reminds me of trying to discuss physics with a flat-earther.  In both cases, they've already made up their mind and they bristle with scorn at any question or even a FACT that challenges their pre-conceived judgments on the matter.  Then they turn around and accuse you of being rude, when you've simply asked them questions they don't want to face.

    Nobody is going to help an even seven see what an even seven refuses to see.  He's dug in, and going for the count, come what may.  It's close to psychotic, really.

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    Offline Last Tradhican

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    « Reply #26 on: August 23, 2016, 03:00:45 AM »
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  • Quote from: An even Seven

    If you are fully NO, and you went along, you don't understand the indefectibility of the Church and that heretics are not inside the Church (or don't care about this stuff). If you are SSPX, you don't understand that you can't disobey a legit pope and operate outside the Jurisdiction of the Church and laughably still claim allegiance to that pope .


    True. That's the quagmire. Unfortunately, many people lose their minds when they consider this, they become obsessed and mean spirited, lose all civility and shut down their listening.

    I go to an SSPX chapel because I know the priests are priest and it is close by. That's all. I have nothing against Sedes as long as they don't go nuts with trying to shove their doubts down peoples throats. I don't see An even Seven as a "dogmatic sedevacantes, his presentation is most civil and enlightening.

    Carry on.

    Offline Neil Obstat

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    « Reply #27 on: August 23, 2016, 11:53:29 AM »
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  • The topic of this thread is Vat.II.

    What was Our Lord telling us when He said that in the last days there would be signs and wonders so as to deceive (if possible) even the elect?  He was giving us words to be carried down through the ages, so as to console us in this time of trial.

    Vat.II can be recognized as a fulfillment of this prophesy.  And Our Lord's words should be a remedy for our distress.

    We should judge a tree by its fruits, and the tree of Vat.II has bad fruit, therefore Vat.II is bad.

    To see an ecuмenical council of the Church that has bad fruit and say, either

    "It's not a real council of the Church!"

    or else

    "The fruit may appear bad but since it's a true council the fruit must be good!"

    are equivalent errors in judgment.


    The fruit is bad, therefore the council should be cut down and cast into the fire, as Our Lord prescribed.  Saying this does not deny the authenticity of the pope and bishops who conducted the council.  But it takes the authority of another council to abrogate Vat.II and its bad fruit.  Perhaps a good pope could do it, but it would seem to be asking for trouble.  A good pope needs the cooperation of bishops to rule well, or else they'll accuse him of being a tyrant.
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    Offline tdrev123

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    The Second Vatican Council
    « Reply #28 on: August 25, 2016, 01:42:48 AM »
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  • What does it matter if the council was infallible or not?

    It is a heretical council, convened by heretics, in order to make the the laity heretics too.

    Vat-2 and its antipopes and heretical priests are not Catholic, none of them can be followed.  

    If you don't follow the leader's orders upon the whole Church, how can you still follow the 'leader'?  


    And also An even Seven is completely correct about Co-redemptrix and Neil Obstat should be ashamed of himself for defaming him by calling him a protestant and psychotic.  Calling someone a protestant for saying what the infallible line of Trent declared is deplorable and mortally sinful.

    Jesus Christ (1) alone is our redeemer ---infallible

    Mary is co-redeemer (2)

    How can there be more than ONE redeemer?  It says ALONE.

    Mary might have played an important role bringing about the redemption of mankind, she already has 2,000 titles why add this heretical title unto her?  

    Offline Stubborn

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    The Second Vatican Council
    « Reply #29 on: August 25, 2016, 06:54:02 AM »
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  • Quote from: An even Seven
    Quote from: Stubborn
    It was, as the OP explains, a real Council of the Catholic Church. It was not, contrary to what you were taught, infallible.

    If that were true the gates of hell have prevailed.

    I will again refer you to study V1 in order to learn what infallibility is while un-learning what you think it is. A daunting task, but doable. Briefly, the gates of hell will never prevail, not even the conciliar errant popes, hell bent on destroying the Church could accomplish that.



    Quote from: An even Seven

    Quote from: Stubborn
    So while you can accuse me of any number of things, please refrain from accusing me of belonging to the false church or of the false church being my Church.

    Your “pope” is francis is it not? Your “popes” and “church” have taught heresy practically daily for the last fifty years have they not? I guess I don’t know your stance on heresy and heretics but that’s a topic for another discussion.

    Yes, among most trads, it is common knowledge  that "The" conciliar popes have been heretics, but the thing you do not understand is that this knowledge in no way qualifies us to declare him deprived of his office, or never to have been elected. Even if the sedevacantists are correct that he lost his office, as his subjects, we are not permitted to do anything about it. This is another point the sedevacantists refuse to accept but that's a subject for another time.



    Quote from: An even Seven

    Quote from: Stubborn
    Consider that the main reason why the overwhelming majority of people  accepted the NO in the first place is because they imagined that they had to do so, that they had to accept this revolution because the pope himself commanded it, and their idea is that they can be saved only by obedience to the pope regardless of what the he says.

    We have a duty as Catholics to know our Faith and be able to distinguish between Truth and error. This includes knowing that a heretic is not inside the Church. In no circuмstances should a Catholic be obeying the teachings of a heretic in matters of faith or morals.

    I completely agree. Yet the fact remains that it is because the overwhelming majority of people accepted the NO in the first place, is because they imagined that they had to do so, due to the previous decades of false teachings which you yourself have accepted as truth, namely, that the pope and magisterium are always infallible.



    Quote from: An even Seven

    Quote from: Stubborn
    We know which teachings are infallible because V1 teaches that it is those teachings "which are contained in the word of God as found in scripture and tradition, and which are proposed by the church as matters to be believed as divinely revealed..." - nothing that came out of V2 meets these requirements from V1 that I've italicized for your benefit
    .
    I showed you proof that what V II taught (were it the Church), would have been considered part of the Extraordinary and Solemn Magisterium. It’s “pope” promulgated each decree as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, in virtue of his apostolic authority, and defined doctrines concerning faith or morals; just one example of V II teaching being that Jews are NOT to be considered rejected.
    If you consider this ex cathedra:
    Quote
    Council of Florence: Therefore it [the Holy Roman Church] condemns, rejects, anathematizes and declares to be outside the Body of Christ, which is the Church, whoever holds opposing or contrary views.

    Then you must consider this ex cathedra:
    Quote
    Vatican II Declaration, Nostra Aetate (#4): “Although the Church is the new people of God, the Jews should not be presented as rejected or cursed by God, as if such views followed from the holy scriptures.”

    Remember that Paul VI acted as shepherd and teacher, using his supposed apostolic authority, while defining something pertaining to faith and morals. These requirements are what’s needed for an ex cathedra statement. The example I provided is a new teaching, which happens to explicitly contradict Catholic Teaching. The only logical conclusion is that, this teaching cannot be of the Catholic Church and must be heresy.

    The quote you used from the council of Florence regards belief in the Blessed Trinity so you are using apples to compare oranges.

    I will again urge you to study the teachings of the First Vatican Council. I also suggest that you read this  OP or at least scroll down to the very bottom section and read it.  



    Quote from: An even Seven

    Quote from: Stubborn
    That the magisterium can, did and do teach error is proved by the magisterium itself after V2. Trying to claim otherwise is adding your own personal requirements to the doctrine of infallibility as decreed by V1.

    As I have shown multiple times, if the V II were the Church, it excercised it’s solemn magisterium at V II, whether Paul VI wanted you to know it or not. All the antipopes and antibishops whom you consider Catholic, since have put V II teaching into practice and expect all “catholics” to believe and do the same.

    I will repeat again that you need to un-learn the errors, as +ABL so clearly stated, that you were taught. The "multiple times" you've attempted to show V2 being infallible are all based on the false understanding of infallibility you were taught - I will continue to stress that you must stick to studying V1 carefully - and best as you possibly can, forget the lies you were taught.

    V1 did not leave anything out, it tells you when the pope and magisterium is infallible and per V1, V2 was completely fallible. Fr. O'Hare in my previous post explains what V1 taught beautifully.

    "But Peter and the apostles answering, said: We ought to obey God, rather than men." - Acts 5:29

    The Highest Principle in the Church: "We are first of all under obedience to God, and only then under obedience to man" - Fr. Hesse