Send CathInfo's owner Matthew a gift from his Amazon wish list:
https://www.amazon.com/hz/wishlist/ls/25M2B8RERL1UO

Author Topic: The pope question is a red herring  (Read 7637 times)

0 Members and 1 Guest are viewing this topic.

Offline Ladislaus

  • Supporter
  • *****
  • Posts: 46570
  • Reputation: +27429/-5067
  • Gender: Male
Re: The pope question is a red herring
« Reply #105 on: December 29, 2023, 06:39:46 PM »
  • Thanks!0
  • No Thanks!0
  • Read St Robert Bellarmine again, it is exactly the same teaching on infallibility as Vatican I. Understand Popes Pius XI and XII accordingly and you will not break with Tradition and the Catholic teaching:

    "'I have prayed for thee that thy faith not fail; and when you have converted, strengthen your brethren' (Luke 22:31). From this text, St Bernard in letter 90 to Pope Innocent deduced that the Roman Pontiff teaching ex cathedra cannot err; and before him the same was said by Pope Lucius I in letter I to the Bishops of Spain and France, by Pope Felix I in a letter to Benignus, Pope Mark in a letter to Athanasius, Leo I in sermon 3..., Leo IX in a letter to Peter Patriarch of Antioch, Agatho in a letter to the Emperor Constantine IV which was read at the Sixth Council (act 4 and again act 8) and approved by the whole Council, Pope Paschal II at the Roman Council..., Innocent III in the chapter Majores on Baptism and its effect... Therefore, if the Roman Pontiff cannot err when he is teaching ex cathedra, certainly his judgement must be followed... For we read Acts ch 15 that the Council said: 'It has seemed good to the Holy Ghost and to us'; such also now is the Pontiff's teaching ex cathedra, whom we showed is always directed by the Holy Ghost so that he cannot err." - St Robert Bellarmine, On the Word of God, Lib 3, Cap 5

    You do know what the term ex cathedra means, don't you?  Before it became turned into a "short-hand" for meeting the notes of papal infallibility, it was actually just ONE of the notes of an infallible pronouncement, and it simply means "from the chair", i.e. teaching as Pope vs. as a private person.  He could teach something "from the chair" that does not meet the other notes of infallibility.

    I'm still waiting for you to produce any teaching, from Pope, Doctor, or Catholic theologian (Old Catholics don't count) holding that the Pope can corrupt the Magisterium, the Mass, and the catalog of saints, so badly that Catholics have to break communion with him to remain Catholic.

    You're a blasphemer against Holy Mother Church, and not merely a heretic.  You'd be much better off for the sake of your faith to simply go back to the Conciliar Church, into some Motu type situation, like FSSP, and try the old "hermeneutics of continuity" with the post-V2 Magisterium that to become a schismatic and adopt Old Catholic heresies, denying the very foundations of Catholicism.  At least those guys are mostly in material error, whereas you're in formal by rejecting the teaching authority of the Church and gutting the very foundations of Catholicism.

    Offline Plenus Venter

    • Full Member
    • ***
    • Posts: 1516
    • Reputation: +1246/-97
    • Gender: Male
    Re: The pope question is a red herring
    « Reply #106 on: December 30, 2023, 01:39:22 AM »
  • Thanks!1
  • No Thanks!0
  • You do know what the term ex cathedra means, don't you?  Before it became turned into a "short-hand" for meeting the notes of papal infallibility, it was actually just ONE of the notes of an infallible pronouncement, and it simply means "from the chair", i.e. teaching as Pope vs. as a private person.  He could teach something "from the chair" that does not meet the other notes of infallibility.

    I'm still waiting for you to produce any teaching, from Pope, Doctor, or Catholic theologian (Old Catholics don't count) holding that the Pope can corrupt the Magisterium, the Mass, and the catalog of saints, so badly that Catholics have to break communion with him to remain Catholic.

    You're a blasphemer against Holy Mother Church, and not merely a heretic.  You'd be much better off for the sake of your faith to simply go back to the Conciliar Church, into some Motu type situation, like FSSP, and try the old "hermeneutics of continuity" with the post-V2 Magisterium that to become a schismatic and adopt Old Catholic heresies, denying the very foundations of Catholicism.  At least those guys are mostly in material error, whereas you're in formal by rejecting the teaching authority of the Church and gutting the very foundations of Catholicism.
    Hey Lad.
    I'm drowning, so many posts, I can't reply to everything that needs an answer at the moment.

    THE MEANING OF 'THE POPE AS A PRIVATE PERSON'
    You raise an interesting point here. The phrase "the pope as a private person".
    It is unclear to me precisely what is meant by this term.
    It often seems to be opposed to the Pope invoking his full authority.
    Do you have any authoritative clarification?

    THE MEANING OF EX CATHEDRA
    You are suggesting in this post that the First Vatican Council, in its solemn definition of Papal Infallibility, employs the term 'ex cathedra' in an entirely novel way, quite differently from how St Robert Bellarmine employed the term, and all the ancient authorities he cites, in spite of the fact that the Council very clearly states that it is 'following the tradition received'. Are you certain about that? It just does not make sense to me, to be honest. But even if that is so, how can you now contradict a solemn definition of the Church? By the way, any authoritative proof of your claim that ex cathedra did not refer to the extraordinary magisterium in ancient times?

    YOU'RE A BLASPHEMER AGAINST HOLY MOTHER CHURCH, AND NOT MERELY A HERETIC... GO BACK TO THE CONCILIAR CHURCH... YOU'RE IN FORMAL ERROR...
    Ouch!!! I'm out of rotten eggs, I used the last one on Centro.




    Offline Ladislaus

    • Supporter
    • *****
    • Posts: 46570
    • Reputation: +27429/-5067
    • Gender: Male
    Re: The pope question is a red herring
    « Reply #107 on: December 30, 2023, 11:35:06 AM »
  • Thanks!0
  • No Thanks!0
  • THE MEANING OF 'THE POPE AS A PRIVATE PERSON'
    You raise an interesting point here. The phrase "the pope as a private person".
    It is unclear to me precisely what is meant by this term.
    It often seems to be opposed to the Pope invoking his full authority.
    Do you have any authoritative clarification?

    Pope is acting as a private person when, say, he's giving interviews to Scalfari or speaking off the cuff or giving a sermon ... that's a loose way of understanding it.  But Church law has established that if something appears in Acta Apostolicae Sedis, then it's to be considered authentic Magisterium, i.e. the Pope teaching as Pope (vs. as a private person).

    Now Vatican I adds other conditions to the notes of infallibility, i.e. that he must be teaching about a matter of faith and morals (vs. referring to scientific or historical matters, though the later can implicitly entail matters of faith) and that he must be defining something as having to be held by all the faithful.  According to this last criterion, things like the Pope's letter to an individual bishop or diocese would not meet the notes of infallibility.

    Offline Hank Igitur

    • Newbie
    • *
    • Posts: 75
    • Reputation: +47/-19
    • Gender: Male
    Re: The pope question is a red herring
    « Reply #108 on: December 30, 2023, 01:45:32 PM »
  • Thanks!0
  • No Thanks!0
  • Hank, what a terrible thing to say about the sons of St Ignatius. Do you not realise it is the Freemasons who have infiltrated the Jesuits that is the problem, and not the glorious order founded by this great saint? It is like saying the Catholic Church should never have been founded because of crisis that is currently afflicting Her. If the Jesuits were not there, the enemy would have used other means, which of course it has. The corruption of the best is the worst, therein lies part of the answer.
    The days of St. Ignatius, St. Robert Bellarmine and Matteo Ricci are long gone when it comes to great Jesuits. I thought even you would've realize this. There must have been a very good reason why the Jesuit order was abolished in the 18th century. And what have the Jesuits given us in the past 100 years? Just a bunch of Teilhard de Chardins, Karl Rahners and Jorge Bergoglios. It was a clever attempt by you to try and argue that I was lumping all of the Jesuits together from the inception of their Order. Nice try but it's just not so. 

    Offline Plenus Venter

    • Full Member
    • ***
    • Posts: 1516
    • Reputation: +1246/-97
    • Gender: Male
    Re: The pope question is a red herring
    « Reply #109 on: December 30, 2023, 08:45:19 PM »
  • Thanks!0
  • No Thanks!0
  • Pope is acting as a private person when, say, he's giving interviews to Scalfari or speaking off the cuff or giving a sermon ... that's a loose way of understanding it.  But Church law has established that if something appears in Acta Apostolicae Sedis, then it's to be considered authentic Magisterium, i.e. the Pope teaching as Pope (vs. as a private person).

    Now Vatican I adds other conditions to the notes of infallibility, i.e. that he must be teaching about a matter of faith and morals (vs. referring to scientific or historical matters, though the later can implicitly entail matters of faith) and that he must be defining something as having to be held by all the faithful.  According to this last criterion, things like the Pope's letter to an individual bishop or diocese would not meet the notes of infallibility.
    Thanks, Lad, I was thinking of its more ancient usage, like when St Robert Bellarmine and Cajetan talk about the Pope as a private person and seem to oppose to that when he is acting in a solemn capacity. I agree with you about its modern usage... perhaps that has always been the meaning, just curious to know if the subject has ever been treated of anywhere.


    Offline Ladislaus

    • Supporter
    • *****
    • Posts: 46570
    • Reputation: +27429/-5067
    • Gender: Male
    Re: The pope question is a red herring
    « Reply #110 on: December 31, 2023, 05:09:53 PM »
  • Thanks!0
  • No Thanks!0
  • Thanks, Lad, I was thinking of its more ancient usage, like when St Robert Bellarmine and Cajetan talk about the Pope as a private person and seem to oppose to that when he is acting in a solemn capacity. I agree with you about its modern usage... perhaps that has always been the meaning, just curious to know if the subject has ever been treated of anywhere.

    It may have been, but I don't know.  I have generally seen explanations of papal infallibility and a list of the notes of infallibility, but don't recall any explanation for the term ex cathedra.  I think that in common parlance the term has become common shorthand for an "infallible" pronouncement, but my reading of Vatican I (and looking at the etymology), it's just one of the notes.  He has to be teaching not only from the chair (in his official teaching capacity, as later known by the appearance of something in Acta Apostolicae Sedis), but also has to be defining a matter of faith and morals that must be held by all the faithful.

    Where it becomes tricky is that there are many times that the Pope seems to be defining a matter of faith and morals and insisting that the faithful accept the teaching, but without the solemn language.  So, for instance, if you believe that Wojtyla was the pope, his teaching that only men could be ordained to the priesthood really does meet the notes of infallibility, even though it didn't appear in some formal dogmatic proclamation.

    Here's Wojtyla from an "Apostolic Letter" Ordinatio Sacerdotalis addressed to all the bishops:
    Quote
    Wherefore, in order that all doubt may be removed regarding a matter of great importance, a matter which pertains to the Church's divine constitution itself, in virtue of my ministry of confirming the brethren (cf. Lk 22:32) I declare that the Church has no authority whatsoever to confer priestly ordination on women and that this judgment is to be definitively held by all the Church's faithful.

    1) "a matter which pertains to the Church's divine constitution" = matter of faith and morals
    2) "in virtue of my ministry of confirming the brethren" = Pope acting as Pope, from Vatican I, ex cathedra, that is as the teacher of all Christians
    3) "I declare" = synonymous with define
    4) "this judgment is to be definitively held by all the Church's faithful" = something to be held by all the faithful.

    This meets all the notes of infallibility, since he was using nearly all the language of Vatican I.

    Problem comes with the pre-Vatican I papal teaching, where they did not necessarily use the explicit language and one might have to INFER from the context whether he intended to teach as Pope and to definitively bind the faithful.



    Offline Ladislaus

    • Supporter
    • *****
    • Posts: 46570
    • Reputation: +27429/-5067
    • Gender: Male
    Re: The pope question is a red herring
    « Reply #111 on: December 31, 2023, 05:13:37 PM »
  • Thanks!0
  • No Thanks!0
  • There must have been a very good reason why the Jesuit order was abolished in the 18th century. And what have the Jesuits given us in the past 100 years? Just a bunch of Teilhard de Chardins, Karl Rahners and Jorge Bergoglios.

    Oh, there certainly was.  Adam Weishaupt, the founder of the modern-day secret societies that were intent upon detroying the Church was also strongly tied to the Jesuits (I think he was a Jesuit scholastic at one point).  I hold that one of the biggest mistakes ever made by a Pope was when Pius VII lifted the suppression of the Jesuits.  Very early on, the Jesuits were dabbling with "inculturation" in their New World missionary activities.  Pope St. Pius V (all the way back then) didn't care for the Jesuits and didn't like having to bow his head (at the name of Jesus) every time he mentioned their order.  Jesuits were petitioning to be dispensed from the Divine Office so they could be more engaged in the various "active" pursuits.  Because they set up a lot of universities, there were heavy influence by the forces of the "Renaissance" and the "Enlightenment" that left their marks on the Jesuits.  I think that many had this attitude of taking the 30-day retreat with the exercises of St. Ignatius to get the "spiritual stuff" out of the way so they could get on with the "real work".

    Offline Plenus Venter

    • Full Member
    • ***
    • Posts: 1516
    • Reputation: +1246/-97
    • Gender: Male
    Re: The pope question is a red herring
    « Reply #112 on: December 31, 2023, 08:11:17 PM »
  • Thanks!0
  • No Thanks!0
  • It may have been, but I don't know.  I have generally seen explanations of papal infallibility and a list of the notes of infallibility, but don't recall any explanation for the term ex cathedra.  I think that in common parlance the term has become common shorthand for an "infallible" pronouncement, but my reading of Vatican I (and looking at the etymology), it's just one of the notes.  He has to be teaching not only from the chair (in his official teaching capacity, as later known by the appearance of something in Acta Apostolicae Sedis), but also has to be defining a matter of faith and morals that must be held by all the faithful.

    Where it becomes tricky is that there are many times that the Pope seems to be defining a matter of faith and morals and insisting that the faithful accept the teaching, but without the solemn language.  So, for instance, if you believe that Wojtyla was the pope, his teaching that only men could be ordained to the priesthood really does meet the notes of infallibility, even though it didn't appear in some formal dogmatic proclamation.

    Here's Wojtyla from an "Apostolic Letter" Ordinatio Sacerdotalis addressed to all the bishops:
    1) "a matter which pertains to the Church's divine constitution" = matter of faith and morals
    2) "in virtue of my ministry of confirming the brethren" = Pope acting as Pope, from Vatican I, ex cathedra, that is as the teacher of all Christians
    3) "I declare" = synonymous with define
    4) "this judgment is to be definitively held by all the Church's faithful" = something to be held by all the faithful.

    This meets all the notes of infallibility, since he was using nearly all the language of Vatican I.

    Problem comes with the pre-Vatican I papal teaching, where they did not necessarily use the explicit language and one might have to INFER from the context whether he intended to teach as Pope and to definitively bind the faithful.
    Thanks, I agree.