You keep artificially trying to limit infallibility to matters that are imposed under strict obligation.
I am not the one who puts limits on papal infallibility; V1 is the one who put the limits and did so, infallibly. We MUST look at matters of infallibility THROUGH V1'S PARAMETERS.
Please read again the "infallibility safety" quote from Fenton above.
I will not say that Fenton contradicts V1, but I also cannot say that he agrees 100% with V1. V1 is infallible, is official, is clear and is concise in its teaching. Fenton is not infallible, nor is his an official teaching.
I MUST accept V1 without question; I therefore MUST view Fenton through the lens of V1.
Vatican II presented a significant body of teaching from the entire hierarchy to the Universal Church ... whether or not it used solemn language (like "we declare and define").
If V2 was not solemnly infallible, then it's either 1) non-solemnly infallible because it agrees with "what has always been taught" or 2) it's not infallible at all.
At the very least, it cannot contain substantial error harmful to faith.
If a teaching is not infallible, then we cannot presume it is 100% orthodox, or else the purpose and use of infallibility becomes meaningless. Outside matters of infallibility, our presumption of orthodoxy is based on our trust in the personal orthodoxy of the hierarchy.
You keep arguing that "ok V2 wasn't infallible but it can't contain errors because of indefectibility", as if this attribute is a 2nd level of infallibility. It's not.
I plan on doing some research on indefectibility and will pass along. The jury's still out.