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Author Topic: St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?  (Read 1357 times)

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Offline bowler

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St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
« on: December 30, 2013, 05:47:34 PM »
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  • Quote from: bowler
    Quote from: Michael93


     it’s unfair to flat out say St. Thomas was wrong about the Immaculate Conception, and to use that as an excuse for rejecting what he says about BOD.



    Here's some more that he said about BOD that you are likely unaware of (also keep in mind that St. Thomas died before any dogmatic decree on EENS was declared by a pope or council):



    St. Thomas is not really a good witness for Baptism of Desire, anymore than St. Augustine and St. Ambrose, who both clearly spoke against it. All this below is contrary to what modern Thomists (whether of the “Neo” or “Transcendental” varieties) would hold. But judging by his rejection below of the only one of his works which such folk generally consult (The Summa), St. Thomas does not appear to be a Thomist in the Modern sense of the term.

    "It does not suffice to believe. He who believes and is not yet baptized, but is only a Catechumen, has not yet fully acquired salvation." St. Thomas Aquinas (Catena Aurea commentary of St. Thomas)
    ---------------------------------------------------
    St. Thomas “Against the Errors of the Greeks, 1263 A.D.
    Part II, CHAPTER 38

    That to be subject to the Roman Pontiff is necessary for salvation.
    It is also shown that to be subject to the Roman Pontiff is necessary for salvation. For Cyril says in his Thesaurus: “Therefore, brethren, if you imitate Christ so as to hear his voice remaining in the Church of Peter and so as not be puffed up by the wind of pride, lest perhaps because of our quarrelling the wily serpent drive us from paradise as once he did Eve.”  And Maximus in the letter addressed to the Orientals says: “The Church united and established upon the rock of Peter’s confession we call according to the decree of the Savior the universal Church, wherein we must remain for the salvation of our souls and wherein loyal to his faith and confession we must obey him.”


    (*Notice that St. Thomas wrote this forty years before it was declared infallible by:

    Pope Boniface VIII, Unam Sanctam, Nov. 18, 1302, ex cathedra:
    “… this Church outside of which there is no salvation nor remission of sin… Furthermore, … every human creature that they by absolute necessity for salvation are entirely subject to the Roman Pontiff.” )

    ----------------------------------------------------------------------

    Summa Part III, Qu. 65, art. 4:

    Whether all the sacraments are necessary for salvation?

    Objection 1: It seems that all the sacraments are necessary for salvation. For what is not necessary seems to be superfluous. But no sacrament is superfluous, because "God does nothing without a purpose" (De Coelo et Mundo i). Therefore all the sacraments are necessary for salvation.

    Objection 2: Further, just as it is said of Baptism (Jn. 3:5): "Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter in to the kingdom of God," so of the Eucharist is it said (Jn. 6:54): "Except you eat of the flesh of the Son of Man, and drink of His blood, you shall not have life in you." Therefore, just as Baptism is a necessary sacrament, so is the Eucharist.

    Objection 3: Further, a man can be saved without the sacrament of Baptism, provided that some unavoidable obstacle, and not his contempt for religion, debar him from the sacrament, as we shall state further on (Q[68], A[2]). But contempt of religion in any sacrament is a hindrance to salvation. Therefore, in like manner, all the sacraments are necessary for salvation.
    On the contrary, Children are saved by Baptism alone without the other sacraments.

    I answer that, Necessity of end, of which we speak now, is twofold. First, a thing may be necessary so that without it the end cannot be attained; thus food is necessary for human life. And this is simple necessity of end. Secondly, a thing is said to be necessary, if, without it, the end cannot be attained so becomingly: thus a horse is necessary for a journey. But this is not simple necessity of end.
    In the first way, three sacraments are necessary for salvation. Two of them are necessary to the individual; Baptism, simply and absolutely; Penance, in the case of mortal sin committed after Baptism; while the sacrament of order is necessary to the Church, since "where there is no governor the people shall fall" (Prov. 11:14).

    But in the second way the other sacraments are necessary. For in a sense Confirmation perfects Baptism; Extreme Unction perfects Penance; while Matrimony, by multiplying them, preserves the numbers in the Church.

    Reply to Objection 1: For a thing not to be superfluous it is enough if it be necessary either in the first or the second way. It is thus that the sacraments are necessary, as stated above.

    Reply to Objection 2: These words of our Lord are to be understood of spiritual, and not of merely sacramental, eating, as Augustine explains (Tract. xxvi super Joan.).

    Reply to Objection 3: Although contempt of any of the sacraments is a hindrance to salvation, yet it does not amount to contempt of the sacrament, if anyone does not trouble to receive a sacrament that is not necessary for salvation. Else those who do not receive orders, and those who do not contract Matrimony, would be guilty of contempt of those sacraments.


     


    Offline Matto

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #1 on: December 30, 2013, 06:09:50 PM »
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  • I thought St. Thomas believed in BOD, but only for those who were sorry for their sins and believed in the incarnation and the trinity. Am I wrong?
    R.I.P.
    Please pray for the repose of my soul.


    Offline Cantarella

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #2 on: December 30, 2013, 06:29:21 PM »
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  • Aquinas taught that: "a man can obtain salvation without being actually baptized, on account of his desire for Baptism, which desire is the outcome of "faith that worketh by charity"" (Summa Theologia III, Quest.68 Art 2).

    It seems to me that BODers do misuse Aquinas' teaching to defend their position and gradually mix it and twist it until they come up with heretical ideas (such as implicit desire, invincible ignorance, universal salvation, etc). Anyway, the teaching of St Thomas does not represent de fide Catholic teaching. He made theological mistakes. It should simply be taken as what it was: an erroneous opinion at his time. We cannot blame the Angelic Doctor for heresy though, because he died in 1274 before the Church had defined the necessity of Baptism of water for salvation in the Councils of Florence and Trent. It is totally different now with those who hold beliefs contrary to what the Church has infallibly defined.

    If anyone says that true and natural water is not necessary for baptism and thus twists into some metaphor the words of our Lord Jesus Christ" Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Spirit" (Jn 3:5) let him be anathema.

    Offline bowler

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #3 on: December 30, 2013, 09:07:57 PM »
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  • Quote from: Matto
    I thought St. Thomas believed in BOD, but only for those who were sorry for their sins and believed in the incarnation and the trinity. Am I wrong?


    A bit more exact than that, however, you more or less heard the same as I. However, as you can see, it does not appear to be so cut and dry now does it?

    I posted this on "Lover of Truth"s thread and no BODer said a word. I'm sure they too never heard this before.

    Offline bowler

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #4 on: December 30, 2013, 09:09:13 PM »
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  • Quote from: Cantarella
    Aquinas taught that: "a man can obtain salvation without being actually baptized, on account of his desire for Baptism, which desire is the outcome of "faith that worketh by charity"" (Summa Theologia III, Quest.68 Art 2).



    As you can see from these quotes, he also taught against baptism of desire.


    Offline Cantarella

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #5 on: December 30, 2013, 10:22:47 PM »
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  • The Angelic Doctor's teaching on "desire" relates to Catechumens who desire baptism and are studying the faith, but then they all of a sudden die so he is allowing salvation for catechumens. There is a whole world between that initial thought, and the modern beliefs of Baptism of Desire, Invincible Ignorance, Implicit Desire, Universal Salvation, etc. One thing leads to the other, like a unstoppable chain that leads only to oblivion and spiritual perdition.

    We all agree that God is omnipotent,. Would not God, in His Infinite Omnipotence, will ensure that His elect WILL get baptized with water, just as Christ, Our Savior, instituted it? Or that his elect come to the knowledge of the True faith and do not remain in state of ignorance?

    We could also defend this position with quotes of St Thomas himself:

    "As God, in accordance with the perfection of the divine power, can do all things, and yet some things are not subject to His power, because they fall short of being possible; so, also, if we regard the immutability of the divine power, whatever God could do, He can do now. Some things, however, at one time were in the nature of possibility, whilst they were yet to be done, which now fall short of the nature of possibility, when they have been done. So is God said not to be able to do them, because they themselves cannot be done." (Summa Theologica, Ia, q.25, a.4, ad 2)

    "As stated above (1, ad 2; 68, 2) man receives the forgiveness of sins before Baptism in so far as he has Baptism of desire, explicitly or implicitly; and yet when he actually receives Baptism, he receives a fuller remission, as to the remission of the entire punishment. So also before Baptism Cornelius and others like him receive grace and virtues through their faith in Christ and their desire for Baptism, implicit or explicit: but afterwards when baptized, they receive a yet greater fullness of grace and virtues. Hence in Psalm 22:2, 'He hath brought me up on the water of refreshment,' a gloss says: 'He has brought us up by an increase of virtue and good deeds in Baptism.'" (Summa Theologica, III, q.69, a.4)

    In this second paragraph St Thomas is clearly talking about Justification not Salvation. He is simply describing something that is happening before Baptism but just in the wait of actually Baptism to occur. You are right that perhaps St Thomas was not a BODer after all. Now that I am thinking about it, I actually don't see any contradiction here with Trent or Fr. Feeney's teaching.  
    If anyone says that true and natural water is not necessary for baptism and thus twists into some metaphor the words of our Lord Jesus Christ" Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Spirit" (Jn 3:5) let him be anathema.

    Offline Neil Obstat

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #6 on: December 30, 2013, 11:32:38 PM »
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    I haven't found anything St. Thomas wrote, saying that the stain of original sin can be washed away by any means other than holy Baptism of water and the Holy Ghost.  

    Yet I see Liberals claiming that he does so, without using direct quotes, and I suspect they do this because the direct quotes do not support their thesis of BoD.

    All men receive actual graces --- even those who never get baptized or never hear the Gospel preached.  Actual grace is God's gift to all, and it is up to man to use the actual grace for his spiritual benefit.  God leaves it up to man to give assent or to reject the will of God.  But the cleansing of original sin is not consequent to any act of man's will, but rather the effect of God's sacrament  --- God providing and man receiving, by his compliance with the will of God.  


    "But as many as received him, he gave them power to be made the sons of God, to them that believe in his name  ―  Who are born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God" (Jn. i. 12-13).


    Man's desire to receive Baptism is a necessary part of this compliance with the will of God.  But this desire to be baptized is not all that is necessary for Baptism to be wholly effective.  

    Baptism becomes effective in potency with the recipient's desire, but but to become effective IN ACT, Baptism requires the proper words, with the proper intention (to do what the Church does) and pouring of the water at the same time by the same person who is speaking the words.  Why bother with all these rules if all it takes is some vague longing of the ignorant for "something better" or some such thing?

    This same confusion of ACT vs. POTENCY is the source for confusion in other areas of theology as well, and it gets past otherwise very vigilant theologians sometimes!  Sometimes they don't want to think about act / potency, and it seems the reason is, it's INCONVENIENT.  It's inconvenient to have your personal agenda upset and put to the test.  


    In the end, if someone dies before he is baptized, we are to leave it in God's hands, and ask for His mercy.  It's not our place to make demands on God or to proclaim that something must have happened that we cannot know about.  Maybe something did happen, but it's not our place to go around saying that it did.


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    Offline Ambrose

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #7 on: December 30, 2013, 11:47:19 PM »
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  • Saint Thomas taught:

    Quote
    Article 11. Whether three kinds of Baptism are fittingly described--viz. Baptism of Water, of Blood, and of the Spirit?

    Objection 1. It seems that the three kinds of Baptism are not fittingly described as Baptism of Water, of Blood, and of the Spirit, i.e. of the Holy Ghost. Because the Apostle says (Ephesians 4:5): "One Faith, one Baptism." Now there is but one Faith. Therefore there should not be three Baptisms.

    Objection 2. Further, Baptism is a sacrament, as we have made clear above (Question 65, Article 1). Now none but Baptism of Water is a sacrament. Therefore we should not reckon two other Baptisms.

    Objection 3. Further, Damascene (De Fide Orth. iv) distinguishes several other kinds of Baptism. Therefore we should admit more than three Baptisms.

    On the contrary, on Hebrews 6:2, "Of the doctrine of Baptisms," the gloss says: "He uses the plural, because there is Baptism of Water, of Repentance, and of Blood."

    I answer that, As stated above (Question 62, Article 5), Baptism of Water has its efficacy from Christ's Passion, to which a man is conformed by Baptism, and also from the Holy Ghost, as first cause. Now although the effect depends on the first cause, the cause far surpasses the effect, nor does it depend on it. Consequently, a man may, without Baptism of Water, receive the sacramental effect from Christ's Passion, in so far as he is conformed to Christ by suffering for Him. Hence it is written (Apocalypse 7:14): "These are they who are come out of great tribulation, and have washed their robes and have made them white in the blood of the Lamb." In like manner a man receives the effect of Baptism by the power of the Holy Ghost, not only without Baptism of Water, but also without Baptism of Blood: forasmuch as his heart is moved by the Holy Ghost to believe in and love God and to repent of his sins: wherefore this is also called Baptism of Repentance. Of this it is written (Isaiah 4:4): "If the Lord shall wash away the filth of the daughters of Zion, and shall wash away the blood of Jerusalem out of the midst thereof, by the spirit of judgment, and by the spirit of burning." Thus, therefore, each of these other Baptisms is called Baptism, forasmuch as it takes the place of Baptism. Wherefore Augustine says (De Unico Baptismo Parvulorum iv): "The Blessed Cyprian argues with considerable reason from the thief to whom, though not baptized, it was said: 'Today shalt thou be with Me in Paradise' that suffering can take the place of Baptism. Having weighed this in my mind again and again, I perceive that not only can suffering for the name of Christ supply for what was lacking in Baptism, but even faith and conversion of heart, if perchance on account of the stress of the times the celebration of the mystery of Baptism is not practicable."

    Reply to Objection 1. The other two Baptisms are included in the Baptism of Water, which derives its efficacy, both from Christ's Passion and from the Holy Ghost. Consequently for this reason the unity of Baptism is not destroyed.

    Reply to Objection 2. As stated above (Question 60, Article 1), a sacrament is a kind of sign. The other two, however, are like the Baptism of Water, not, indeed, in the nature of sign, but in the baptismal effect. Consequently they are not sacraments.

    Reply to Objection 3. Damascene enumerates certain figurative Baptisms. For instance, "the Deluge" was a figure of our Baptism, in respect of the salvation of the faithful in the Church; since then "a few . . . souls were saved in the ark [Vulgate: 'by water'," according to 1 Peter 3:20. He also mentions "the crossing of the Red Sea": which was a figure of our Baptism, in respect of our delivery from the bondage of sin; hence the Apostle says (1 Corinthians 10:2) that "all . . . were baptized in the cloud and in the sea." And again he mentions "the various washings which were customary under the Old Law," which were figures of our Baptism, as to the cleansing from sins: also "the Baptism of John," which prepared the way for our Baptism.

    Article 12. Whether the Baptism of Blood is the most excellent of these?

    Objection 1. It seems that the Baptism of Blood is not the most excellent of these three. For the Baptism of Water impresses a character; which the Baptism of Blood cannot do. Therefore the Baptism of Blood is not more excellent than the Baptism of Water.

    Objection 2. Further, the Baptism of Blood is of no avail without the Baptism of the Spirit, which is by charity; for it is written (1 Corinthians 13:3): "If I should deliver my body to be burned, and have not charity, it profiteth me nothing." But the Baptism of the Spirit avails without the Baptism of Blood; for not only the martyrs are saved. Therefore the Baptism of Blood is not the most excellent.

    Objection 3. Further, just as the Baptism of Water derives its efficacy from Christ's Passion, to which, as stated above (Article 11), the Baptism of Blood corresponds, so Christ's Passion derives its efficacy from the Holy Ghost, according to Hebrews 9:14: "The Blood of Christ, Who by the Holy Ghost offered Himself unspotted unto God, shall cleanse our conscience from dead works," etc. Therefore the Baptism of the Spirit is more excellent than the Baptism of Blood. Therefore the Baptism of Blood is not the most excellent.

    On the contrary, Augustine (Ad Fortunatum) speaking of the comparison between Baptisms says: "The newly baptized confesses his faith in the presence of the priest: the martyr in the presence of the persecutor. The former is sprinkled with water, after he has confessed; the latter with his blood. The former receives the Holy Ghost by the imposition of the bishop's hands; the latter is made the temple of the Holy Ghost."

    I answer that, As stated above (Article 11), the shedding of blood for Christ's sake, and the inward operation of the Holy Ghost, are called baptisms, in so far as they produce the effect of the Baptism of Water. Now the Baptism of Water derives its efficacy from Christ's Passion and from the Holy Ghost, as already stated (11). These two causes act in each of these three Baptisms; most excellently, however, in the Baptism of Blood. For Christ's Passion acts in the Baptism of Water by way of a figurative representation; in the Baptism of the Spirit or of Repentance, by way of desire. but in the Baptism of Blood, by way of imitating the (Divine) act. In like manner, too, the power of the Holy Ghost acts in the Baptism of Water through a certain hidden power. in the Baptism of Repentance by moving the heart; but in the Baptism of Blood by the highest degree of fervor of dilection and love, according to John 15:13: "Greater love than this no man hath that a man lay down his life for his friends."

    Reply to Objection 1. A character is both reality and a sacrament. And we do not say that the Baptism of Blood is more excellent, considering the nature of a sacrament; but considering the sacramental effect.

    Reply to Objection 2. The shedding of blood is not in the nature of a Baptism if it be without charity. Hence it is clear that the Baptism of Blood includes the Baptism of the Spirit, but not conversely. And from this it is proved to be more perfect.

    Reply to Objection 3. The Baptism owes its pre-eminence not only to Christ's Passion, but also to the Holy Ghost, as stated above.


    S.T. III, Q. 66, art, 11,12
    Found HERE
    The Council of Trent, The Catechism of the Council of Trent, Papal Teaching, The Teaching of the Holy Office, The Teaching of the Church Fathers, The Code of Canon Law, Countless approved catechisms, The Doctors of the Church, The teaching of the Dogmatic


    Offline Neil Obstat

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #8 on: December 31, 2013, 02:29:20 AM »
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    Like I said, I don't see anywhere St. Thomas has written that this so-called 'baptism of desire' washes away original sin.  In fact, there are no sentences which he wrote that contain the words "baptism of desire" and "original sin" in the same sentence.  It is a little odd that whereas he is usually rather precise, in this topic he remains vague, and perhaps he meant to say that by one's desire for baptism, one may receive remission of VENIAL sins, but not of original sin.  And perhaps he was thinking that the remission of mortal sin requires perfect contrition, which is possible without the sacrament of Baptism, as it is possible without sacramental Confession, however, in the latter case, the penitent is required to go and receive the sacrament of Penance before he presents himself for Holy Communion.

    Certainly St. Thomas would not confuse the desire for Baptism with perfect contrition, for it is quite possible, actually rather MORE LIKELY that someone with a desire for baptism would have less than perfect contrition, but even so, perhaps his desire for baptism could work as would holy water and the sign of the cross with the proper intention, to remit his VENIAL sins, but not his mortal sins ⏽ nor for that matter does it apply to his original sin, of course.

    But BoD-ers would have non-baptized souls presenting themselves before their particular judgment presuming to be free of not only mortal sin but original sin.

    Since this so-called 'baptism of desire' is not a sacrament, perhaps St. Thomas meant to say it is a sacramental, since he was being vague, such as using holy water, or making the sign of the cross, or genuflecting, none of which can wash away original sin, of course, even if they in fact CAN remit venial sins.  (Genuflecting does not remit venial sin, but making the sign of the cross with holy water, combined with the proper contrition and intention to be repentant, does remit venial sin.)

    But it is noteworthy that the Church teaches that anyone who tries to have his confession heard by a priest and tells the priest he has not been baptized, the priest will not give him absolution, in fact, attempting to receive the sacrament of Penance before being baptized is an act of sacrilege.  Now, if he says, "But I have received baptism of desire," neither will the priest give him absolution, but it is still an objective act of sacrilege for the penitent to have done so.  

    And therefore, how could he be practicing PERFECT CONTRITION and SACRILEGE at the same time?



    Maybe that's how B16's hermeneutic of continuity can come into play, with its denial of the principle of non-contradiction?


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    Offline bowler

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #9 on: December 31, 2013, 10:56:48 AM »
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  • Quote from: Cantarella
    The Angelic Doctor's teaching on "desire" relates to Catechumens


    There are other quotes which I have that speak of the "wild man living in the forest", and how he could be saved by God sending him a preacher or God teaching him by internal enlightment as to what has to be believed to be saved. Which St. Thomas says at a minimum is belief in the mysteries of the Incarnation (Christ) and the Holy Trinity.

    St. Augustine says basically the same except he adds that God will also teach him that he needs to get baptized, (simpler than learning the Mysteries , no?)

    We've all seen those quotes by St. Thomas, for they are constantly posted by I or Nishant.  

    HOWEVER I had not known these below till someone brought them to my attention a few days ago, and I have been debating EENS for 20 years.

    and notice the third one, he is saying that the sacrament of baptism is absolutely necessary for salvation as food is absolutely necessary to live.

    "It does not suffice to believe. He who believes and is not yet baptized, but is only a Catechumen, has not yet fully acquired salvation." St. Thomas Aquinas (Catena Aurea commentary of St. Thomas)
    ---------------------------------------------------
    St. Thomas “Against the Errors of the Greeks, 1263 A.D.
    Part II, CHAPTER 38

    That to be subject to the Roman Pontiff is necessary for salvation.
    It is also shown that to be subject to the Roman Pontiff is necessary for salvation. For Cyril says in his Thesaurus: “Therefore, brethren, if you imitate Christ so as to hear his voice remaining in the Church of Peter and so as not be puffed up by the wind of pride, lest perhaps because of our quarrelling the wily serpent drive us from paradise as once he did Eve.”  And Maximus in the letter addressed to the Orientals says: “The Church united and established upon the rock of Peter’s confession we call according to the decree of the Savior the universal Church, wherein we must remain for the salvation of our souls and wherein loyal to his faith and confession we must obey him.”


    (*Notice that St. Thomas wrote this forty years before it was declared infallible by:

    Pope Boniface VIII, Unam Sanctam, Nov. 18, 1302, ex cathedra:
    “… this Church outside of which there is no salvation nor remission of sin… Furthermore, … every human creature that they by absolute necessity for salvation are entirely subject to the Roman Pontiff.” )

    ----------------------------------------------------------------------

    Summa Part III, Qu. 65, art. 4:

    Whether all the sacraments are necessary for salvation?

    Objection 1: It seems that all the sacraments are necessary for salvation. For what is not necessary seems to be superfluous. But no sacrament is superfluous, because "God does nothing without a purpose" (De Coelo et Mundo i). Therefore all the sacraments are necessary for salvation.

    Objection 2: Further, just as it is said of Baptism (Jn. 3:5): "Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter in to the kingdom of God," so of the Eucharist is it said (Jn. 6:54): "Except you eat of the flesh of the Son of Man, and drink of His blood, you shall not have life in you." Therefore, just as Baptism is a necessary sacrament, so is the Eucharist.

    Objection 3: Further, a man can be saved without the sacrament of Baptism, provided that some unavoidable obstacle, and not his contempt for religion, debar him from the sacrament, as we shall state further on (Q[68], A[2]). But contempt of religion in any sacrament is a hindrance to salvation. Therefore, in like manner, all the sacraments are necessary for salvation.
    On the contrary, Children are saved by Baptism alone without the other sacraments.

    I answer that, Necessity of end, of which we speak now, is twofold. First, a thing may be necessary so that without it the end cannot be attained; thus food is necessary for human life. And this is simple necessity of end. Secondly, a thing is said to be necessary, if, without it, the end cannot be attained so becomingly: thus a horse is necessary for a journey. But this is not simple necessity of end.
    In the first way, three sacraments are necessary for salvation. Two of them are necessary to the individual; Baptism, simply and absolutely; Penance, in the case of mortal sin committed after Baptism; while the sacrament of order is necessary to the Church, since "where there is no governor the people shall fall" (Prov. 11:14).

    But in the second way the other sacraments are necessary. For in a sense Confirmation perfects Baptism; Extreme Unction perfects Penance; while Matrimony, by multiplying them, preserves the numbers in the Church.

    Reply to Objection 1: For a thing not to be superfluous it is enough if it be necessary either in the first or the second way. It is thus that the sacraments are necessary, as stated above.

    Reply to Objection 2: These words of our Lord are to be understood of spiritual, and not of merely sacramental, eating, as Augustine explains (Tract. xxvi super Joan.).

    Reply to Objection 3: Although contempt of any of the sacraments is a hindrance to salvation, yet it does not amount to contempt of the sacrament, if anyone does not trouble to receive a sacrament that is not necessary for salvation. Else those who do not receive orders, and those who do not contract Matrimony, would be guilty of contempt of those sacraments.
    Quote





    Offline icterus

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #10 on: December 31, 2013, 11:58:30 AM »
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  • Quote
    "It does not suffice to believe. He who believes and is not yet baptized, but is only a Catechumen, has not yet fully acquired salvation." St. Thomas Aquinas (Catena Aurea commentary of St. Thomas)


    When someone brings up this quote, I always ask "What does 'fully' mean in this context?".

    In BOD discussions, this detail often gets overlooked.  BOD'ers tend to edit the 'not yet' out of the quote, the anti-BOD'ers tend to edit the 'fully' out of the quote.

    It's a pity there's no infallible, Spirit-guided Church of God to answer our doctrinal disputes.  Oh, wait.  


    Offline Ambrose

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #11 on: December 31, 2013, 01:15:25 PM »
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  • Neil Obstat wrote:

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    Like I said, I don't see anywhere St. Thomas has written that this so-called 'baptism of desire' washes away original sin.


    You say this because you are not understanding St. Thomas.

    St Thomas taught:  

    Quote
    As stated above (Question 60, Article 1), a sacrament is a kind of sign. The other two, however, are like the Baptism of Water, not, indeed, in the nature of sign, but in the baptismal effect. Consequently they are not sacraments.

    S.T. III, Q. 66, art, 11.

    So, then what are the effects that Baptism of Desire and Blood have that are the same as Baptism of Water?  

    St. Thomas describes the effects of Baptism in Question 69.  One of the effects of Baptism is the remission of all sin, original and actual.

    St. Thomas explains:

    Quote
    I answer that, As the Apostle says (Romans 6:3), "all we, who are baptized in Christ Jesus, are baptized in His death." And further on he concludes (Romans 6:11): "So do you also reckon that you are dead to sin, but alive unto God in Christ Jesus our Lord." Hence it is clear that by Baptism man dies unto the oldness of sin, and begins to live unto the newness of grace. But every sin belongs to the primitive oldness. Consequently every sin is taken away by Baptism.

    S.T., Q 69,  art. 1.

    St. Thomas teaches that all of the effects of Baptism occur with Baptism of Desire and Blood, except for the mark, or sign, as they are like Baptism.
    The Council of Trent, The Catechism of the Council of Trent, Papal Teaching, The Teaching of the Holy Office, The Teaching of the Church Fathers, The Code of Canon Law, Countless approved catechisms, The Doctors of the Church, The teaching of the Dogmatic

    Offline bowler

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #12 on: December 31, 2013, 04:42:25 PM »
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  • Quote from: icterus
    Quote
    "It does not suffice to believe. He who believes and is not yet baptized, but is only a Catechumen, has not yet fully acquired salvation." St. Thomas Aquinas (Catena Aurea commentary of St. Thomas)


    When someone brings up this quote, I always ask "What does 'fully' mean in this context?".

    In BOD discussions, this detail often gets overlooked.  BOD'ers tend to edit the 'not yet' out of the quote, the anti-BOD'ers tend to edit the 'fully' out of the quote.

    It's a pity there's no infallible, Spirit-guided Church of God to answer our doctrinal disputes.  Oh, wait.  


    What does does mean and what does mean mean and what does what mean?

    Words, said Humpty Dumpty to Alice "mean exactly what I say they mean".

    A dogmatic decree is the infallible final judgement of the Holy Ghost speaking through the pope. If the words do not mean what they say, then it is worthless.  

    Offline bowler

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    St. Thomas Not Exactly a BODer?
    « Reply #13 on: December 31, 2013, 04:50:37 PM »
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  • The very point of a dogmatic DEFINITION is to DEFINE precisely and exactly what the Church means by the very words of the formula. If it does not do this by those very words in the formula or docuмent (as the Modernists say) then it has failed in its primary purpose – to define – and was pointless and worthless. Anyone who says that we must interpret or understand the meaning of a dogmatic definition, in a way which contradicts its actual wording, is denying the whole point of the Chair of Peter, Papal Infallibility and dogmatic definitions. He is asserting that dogmatic definitions are pointless, worthless and foolish and that the Church is pointless, worthless and foolish for making such a definition.

    Example of clear Dogma:

    Quote
    Pope Eugene IV, Council of Florence, Cantate Domino, 1441, ex cathedra:

    The Holy Roman Church firmly believes, professes and preaches that all those who are outside the Catholic Church , not only pagans but also Jєωs or heretics and schismatics, cannot share in eternal life and will go into the everlasting fire which was prepared for the devil and his angels, unless they are joined to the Church before the end of their lives; that the unity of this ecclesiastical body is of such importance that only those who abide in it do the Church's sacraments contribute to salvation and do fasts, almsgiving and other works of piety and practices of the Christian militia productive of eternal rewards; and that nobody  can be saved, no matter how much he has given away in alms and even if he has shed blood in the name of Christ, unless he has persevered in the bosom and unity of the Catholic Church.


    Example of  "interpreting or understanding the meaning of a dogmatic definition, in a way which contradicts its actual wording, which is denying the whole point of the Chair of Peter:

    Bishop Bernard Fellay, Conference in Denver, Co., Feb. 18, 2006: “We know that there are two other baptisms, that of desire and that of blood. These produce an invisible but real link with Christ but do not produce all of the effects which are received in the baptism of water… And the Church has always taught that you have people who will be in heaven, who are in the state of grace, who have been saved without knowing the Catholic Church. We know this. And yet, how is it possible if you cannot be saved outside the Church? It is absolutely true that they will be saved through the Catholic Church because they will be united to Christ, to the Mystical Body of Christ, which is the Catholic Church. It will, however, remain invisible, because this visible link is impossible for them. Consider a Hindu in Tibet who has no knowledge of the Catholic Church. He lives according to his conscience and to the laws which God has put into his heart. He can be in the state of grace, and if he dies in this state of grace, he will go to heaven.” (The Angelus, “A Talk Heard Round the World,” April, 2006, p. 5.)


    Dogma says one can't be saved even if they shed their blood for Christ, and the "interpretation" says they can be saved not even knowing the Church exists!