Just checking in, and see that despite the pep fest to dispel the doubts about the Feeneyite position which I have inculcated, 50 posts later, nobody is able to answer a very simple question:
Please cite Church teaching on either:
1) How is grace lost without grave sin
or
2) How those dying in the state of grace can be damned.
I'll check back in another 50 posts (i.e., 15 minutes).
Throwing another one of your puerile trantrums, I see.
Evidently you are incapable of following simple logic, and you have dodged the very simple question that's been put before you. You refuse to answer it because it's absolutely fatal to your position. You play this game constantly, where you beg the question and demand proof, and assume that your position is the correct one ... without having proved your own position.
Where is your citation from the Magisterium that the grace infused in an infant at Baptism could only be lost by mortal sin even if the individual reaches the age of reason without the dispositions necessary for adults to be justified by the Sacrament? You'll find none. So from the direct Magisterial perspective, this is a wash. But that doesn't stopping you from begging the question and then insisting that you're right unless someone can disprove it, even though you've never proven your own position.
Father Mueller explained the situation very eloquently. But you play these games and throw your usual tantrum.
Of course, after going-on-double-digit requests you have still refused to answer this very basic question. Let me formulate it so that you can just type yes or no. I'll even put it in bold for you so you don't forget.
If an infant is baptized, but is raised as an atheist, and through no fault of his own and having committed no mortal sin, arrives at the age of reason as an atheist, and then dies in that state, does he remain in a state of sanctifying grace and is saved? YES OR NO?
Topic: R&R -- why don't you get behind Father Chazal's sede-impoundism? (Read 55190 times)