You know what, CM, I can indefinitely multiply sources explaining why Catholic doctrine precludes what you are claiming, but you'll just keep saying that an usurpation is a delegation, or something like that. Why don't I propose something simple, you respect Mr. John Lane, why don't you ask him whether your opinion on this particular point is an allowable Catholic opinion?
I happen to know John Lane has stated the opinion that you've defended here and a few others have defended before is worse than Anglicanism and reeks of Protestantism. Exact words. You surely can't accuse him of not being a sedevacantist or saying so just for that reason. To be a principled, doctrinaire traditionalist is to uphold doctrine first, figure out how it applies later. As Dom Adrien Grea, Prosper Gueranger and others explain, what you are suggesting overthrows the Church, it would have made Her governance impossible in any age, and the arguments with which She refuted the heterodox false, since She always stated what you are claiming was precluded absolutely.
John Daly will tell you the same, all Society priests and bishops will tell you the same, most sedevacantist priests will tell you the same. These are more proximate sources than a theology manual, can be cross-questioned, and will answer your question directly. That's why I suggest you ask them yourself, especially if you respect their judgment, and are only interested in the truth, whether the opinion you've defended here is in any way an acceptable and Catholic opinion.