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Author Topic: OPEN LETTER to E. MIchael Jones in defense of Archbishop Carlo Maria Viganò  (Read 9380 times)

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Offline Mark 79

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  • Dogma is the matter of the proximate rule of faith; the form is the infallible teacher (Pope, council, etc) who proposes it for belief.  Without the infallible teacher (form) there is no matter (dogma) for belief.  I requires both.  The Pope/council is the form of the proximate rule of faith; the docrine infallibly proposed is the matter. 
    What utter rubbish from yet another newbie throw-away account here.

    Dogma is not a sacrament that requires matter, form, minister, and intent.

    My compliments to Matthew that CathInfo has become important enough to be targeted by an unending tsunami of agitprop trolls.

    Offline Striving4Holiness

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  • What utter rubbish from yet another newbie throw-away account here.

    Dogma is not a sacrament that requires matter, form, minister, and intent.

    Why do you believe only sacraments have matter and form?  Man has matter and form, animals have matter and form, human acts have matter and form, statues have matter and form.

    Although it was not your intention, your critical (form) statment (matter) revealed your ignorance. 


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    CathInfo has become important enough to be targeted by an unending tsunami of agitprop trolls.

    Physician, heal thyself.


    Online Ladislaus

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  • Striving4Holiness is correct on this point.  Form/Matter distinction applies to all types of situations (not merely Sacraments).

    So, for instance, the Dogma of the Assumption was always materially a dogma, since they were all revealed from the beginning (before the death of the Last Apostle), but one did not become a formal heretic until it was defined by the Church's authority.

    So, another way to make the distinction is that Dogma is the Remote Rule of Faith, whereas the Magisterium proposing it to us is the Proximate Rule of Faith.  St. Augustine famously stated that he would not believe Sacred Scripture had the Church's teaching authority not proposed it to him for belief.  Other Theologians refer to Scripture/Tradition as the "Proximate Inanimate" Rule of Faith, with the Magisterium being the "Proximate Animate" rule.

    Bottom line is that what we must believe comes to us not directly from Scripture / Tradition, but from how the Church proposes them to us.  This R&R notion that Dogma is a Proximate Rule of Faith (that somehow trumps the Magisterium) is simply not Catholic.  It's essentially the same approach that Prots take to Scriptures, that the Scriptures are their Rule of Faith (and they don't need the Church and Magisterium to interpret it, since it stands alone) ... except that the Prots only accept one source of Revelation, not Two.

    Offline drew

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  • Dogma is the matter of the proximate rule of faith; the form is the infallible teacher (Pope, council, etc) who proposes it for belief.  Without the infallible teacher (form) there is no matter (dogma) for belief.  I requires both.  The Pope/council is the form of the proximate rule of faith; the docrine infallibly proposed is the matter. 

    This is a gross abuse of language. The "infallible teacher" is the means by which dogma is produced. Dogma is the ends. It is an abuse of language to refer to the means as the "form" and the ends as the "matter". Form and matter are philosophical terms to describe a substantial being and these terms have been incorporated into Catholic dogma. For example, it is a Catholic dogma that a man is composed of body and soul and that the soul is the substantial form of the man, the body is the matter. Whenever there is a dissolution of the form and matter, the being, in this case, the man, undergoes a substantial change. The form and matter of dogma can only refer to the truth defined and the words used in the definition.
     
    This question was discussed in detail in the thread, Is Fr. Ringrose dumping the R&R crowd?:

    https://www.cathinfo.com/SSPX-RESISTANCE-NEWS/IS-FATHER-RINGROSE-DUMPING-THE-R-R-CROWD/

    My replies begin on page 4:

    https://www.cathinfo.com/sspx-resistance-news/is-father-ringrose-dumping-the-r-r-crowd/msg598973/#msg598973
     
    But as said above in a previous reply to Ladislaus, the truth that dogma constitutes the proximate rule of faith is evident in the definition of heresy. The best of all definitions, because it is the most intelligible, is the essential which provides the proximate genus and the essential difference. A heretic is a baptized Catholic who denies dogma. If you do not want to be a heretic you must keep dogma as your proximate rule of faith.
     
    Also, I would recommend that you not enter this discussion if you have not read the OPEN LETTER.
     
    Drew



    Offline Striving4Holiness

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  • This is a gross abuse of language. The "infallible teacher" is the means by which dogma is produced. Dogma is the ends. It is an abuse of language to refer to the means as the "form" and the ends as the "matter".

    The infallible teacher not only "makes" the dogma - i.e., formulates the dogmatic proposition; it also infallibly proposes it to us for belief.  Those are two distinct acts. 

    So, the infallible teacher is not only the means by which the dogma is "produced"; it is also the infallible teacher that proposes it to us for belief.  In the latter sense, the infallible teaching authority is the proximate motive for belief; the dogmatic proposition that it "made" is the matter to be believed.

    The matter (dogma) is what we believe; the infallible teacher is why we believe it. 


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    But as said above in a previous reply to Ladislaus, the truth that dogma constitutes the proximate rule of faith is evident in the definition of heresy. The best of all definitions, because it is the most intelligible, is the essential which provides the proximate genus and the essential difference. A heretic is a baptized Catholic who denies dogma.

    But how do we know what teachings are dogmas? That is, how do we know what propositions are revealed truths that requires the assent of Divine and Catholic Faith?  Answer: We know what propositions are dogmas, because the infallibly teacher told us. Without the infallible teacher, every person would be left on his own to determine what truths have been revealed by God.

    I agree with you that dogmas are the matter of the proximate rule of faith (what is believed); but there is also no doubt that the infallible teacher is the formal aspect of the proximate rule of faith, since the infallible teaching authority is the proximate motive for belief.


    Offline Striving4Holiness

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  • the truth that dogma constitutes the proximate rule of faith is evident in the definition of heresy. The best of all definitions, because it is the most intelligible, is the essential which provides the proximate genus and the essential difference. A heretic is a baptized Catholic who denies dogma. If you do not want to be a heretic you must keep dogma as your proximate rule of faith.

    In addition to what I wrote previously, another point confirming that the infallible teaching authority is the formal aspect of the proximate rule of faith - and proximate motive for belief - is the fact that heresy is directly opposed to the infallibility authority of the Church as teacher and only mediately, or indirectly, opposed the dogmas that are proposed for belief, and against the First Truth (God) the Revealer.  Billuart explains:

    "Pertinacious heresy, therefore, is immediately and directly opposed to the infallible authority that the Church enjoys in proposing revealed truths (an authority that they can and ought to acknowledge, but which they pertinaciously deny); and, because the Church infallibly proposes truths revealed by God, heresy is mediately and indirectly opposed to these truths, and consequently to revelation itself, and finally to the First Truth who is the source of revelation." (Summa s. Thomae of Charles-Rene Billuart, (1685-1757), Secunda Secundae, 4th Dissertation: On the Vices Opposed to Faith, A. 1.)

    Offline drew

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  • The infallible teacher not only "makes" the dogma - i.e., formulates the dogmatic proposition; it also infallibly proposes it to us for belief.  Those are two distinct acts. 

    So, the infallible teacher is not only the means by which the dogma is "produced"; it is also the infallible teacher that proposes it to us for belief.  In the latter sense, the infallible teaching authority is the proximate motive for belief; the dogmatic proposition that it "made" is the matter to be believed.

    The matter (dogma) is what we believe; the infallible teacher is why we believe it. 


    But how do we know what teachings are dogmas? That is, how do we know what propositions are revealed truths that requires the assent of Divine and Catholic Faith?  Answer: We know what propositions are dogmas, because the infallibly teacher told us. Without the infallible teacher, every person would be left on his own to determine what truths have been revealed by God.

    I agree with you that dogmas are the matter of the proximate rule of faith (what is believed); but there is also no doubt that the infallible teacher is the formal aspect of the proximate rule of faith, since the infallible teaching authority is the proximate motive for belief.

    St. Thomas says that the existence of God is not self-evident but it becomes self-evident once the terms of the definition are known. An essential definition does the same thing: when the terms are know the meaning is self-evident. That is why the definition of heresy makes the truth that dogma constitutes the proximate rule of faith self-evident. That is why an essential definition is the most intelligible of all definitions.

    Still there are people who know the terms and deny the existence of God. What are we to attribute their blindness? Malice? Stupidity? Sloth? Take your pick.

    You have not read the OPEN LETTER and yet you have entered a discussion on a question that you have not informed yourself. And I do not think you have any intention of informing yourself for you, like Ladislaus, apparently know everything.

    You were advised, if you doubted that  dogma constitutes the proximate rule of faith, to read the thread: Is Fr. Ringrose dumping the R&R crowd? If you had read it you would not have repeated almost verbatim the same error of Ladislaus when you said:

    Quote
    Striving4Holiness said:
    "The matter (dogma) is what we believe; the infallible teacher (the form?) is why we believe it."

    https://www.cathinfo.com/sspx-resistance-news/is-father-ringrose-dumping-the-r-r-crowd/msg600102/#msg600102

    This remark goes beyond a corruption of the terms form and matter and the inability to distinguish means from ends. It attacks the faith in its necessary attributes. If you read just this one post replying to Ladislaus you will see what a colossal corruption of the faith you have made.

    The purpose of this thread is to invite E. Michael Jones to publicly reply to the charge that his understanding of schism is erroneous because his understanding of the faith is erroneous. This purpose of this thread is not to explain to you what is self-evident because you will not make the effort to inform yourself on fundamental definitions before posting.

    Drew



    Online Ladislaus

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  • Yes, two people just independently (without knowing each other or what the other had written) made the same "colossal" mistake, a corruption of the faith ... strange.

    No, Drew, you're the one corrupting faith and promoting the same error (heresy) as the Protestants ... the only difference between you and the Prots being that the Prots recognize only one source of dogma (Sacred Scripture) while you recognize two (Sacred Scripture and Tradition).  Otherwise, your thesis is identical to theirs, and is simply not Catholic.

    Another perspective on the distinction would be that between quoad se and quoad nos, where something might be dogma quoad se but does not become dogma quoad nos until it's proposed as such by the Church's infallible teaching authority.

    Then of course, as I've pointed out, and all Catholic theologians admit, there's the content of dogma, i.e. WHAT is believed, vs. WHY it's believed.  St. Thomas clearly teaches the distinction, namely, that natural truths are believed on their own merits, whereas supernatural truths can only be believed based on the authority of the One Revealing them, and it's a combined act of intellect and will, the latter being drawn by the intellectual motives of credibility into a submission of the will to that authority.  But supernatural truths are simply not knowable on their own or intrinsically.  Vatican I made that definition quite clear.

    Here's another way to look at it.  So, we believe dogma due to the authority of God revealing.  But how do we know that it was God who revealed these things?  Did God come down and tell us that it was He behind Sacred Scripture and Tradition?  Of course not.  We accepted it based upon the testimony of the Church, those whom He sent to communicate this to us.  If we didn't believe in and accept their testimony, who know? ... they could have made the whole thing up, just like Mohammed made up his fake religion.  Just as it's absurd to believe, as the Prots do, that somehow God plopped the Bible down onto earth from heaven in the same way he wrote on the stone tables for Moses (and even then we have to take Moses' word for it, and believe that he didn't just carve those up himself during his prolonged stay alone up there and pretend that God did it).  Similarly, God didn't just plop "Tradition" down, along with the Bible.  And, just as the Prots decided that the Bible did not require any authoritative interpretation (since it was their "rule of faith") ... leading to there being currently over 23,000 different Prot denominations with varying interpretations of said Bible, it's precisely the same grave error and "corruption of faith" to assert the same thing of Tradition, that it requires no interpretation.  Long before the Prots came along, when people still believed in Tradition, there were myriad heresies from the very beginnings of the Church, from people who claimed a different interpretation of Bible and Tradition.  How does one discern the correct interpretation and the false one?  Obviously by relying upon the authority of the Church.


    Offline Striving4Holiness

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  • Another perspective on the distinction would be that between quoad se and quoad nos, where something might be dogma quoad se but does not become dogma quoad nos until it's proposed as such by the Church's infallible teaching authority.

    Excellent point. Every revealed truth is a dogma quoad se (in itself), or a "material dogma".  When the Church formulates the dogma and infallibly proposes it for belief, it become a dogma quoad nos (according to us), or a formal dogma.

    If Drew knew metaphysics he would realize that when he says dogmas are the proximate rule of faith, what he means is they are the matter of the proximate rule; that is, they are the material object of belief, and he is right.  But the proximate formal object, or proximate motive of belief in the dogma, is the infallibility of the divinely constituted teacher of revealed truth.  Since  dogma a quoad se becomes a dogma quoad nos when the Church (Pope or council) proposes it for believe, the Church is said to be the proximate rule of faith. But what that really means is that the Church is the formal aspect of the proximate rule of faith, since it is she that conditions belief by proposing it for belief.

       

    Offline Mark 79

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  • Striving4Holiness is correct on this point.  Form/Matter distinction applies to all types of situations (not merely Sacraments).

    So, for instance, the Dogma of the Assumption was always materially a dogma, since they were all revealed from the beginning (before the death of the Last Apostle), but one did not become a formal heretic until it was defined by the Church's authority.

    So, another way to make the distinction is that Dogma is the Remote Rule of Faith, whereas the Magisterium proposing it to us is the Proximate Rule of Faith.  St. Augustine famously stated that he would not believe Sacred Scripture had the Church's teaching authority not proposed it to him for belief.  Other Theologians refer to Scripture/Tradition as the "Proximate Inanimate" Rule of Faith, with the Magisterium being the "Proximate Animate" rule.

    Bottom line is that what we must believe comes to us not directly from Scripture / Tradition, but from how the Church proposes them to us.  This R&R notion that Dogma is a Proximate Rule of Faith (that somehow trumps the Magisterium) is simply not Catholic.  It's essentially the same approach that Prots take to Scriptures, that the Scriptures are their Rule of Faith (and they don't need the Church and Magisterium to interpret it, since it stands alone) ... except that the Prots only accept one source of Revelation, not Two.
    I stand corrected. Thank you.

    Offline drew

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  • Yes, two people just independently (without knowing each other or what the other had written) made the same "colossal" mistake, a corruption of the faith ... strange.

    No, Drew, you're the one corrupting faith and promoting the same error (heresy) as the Protestants ... the only difference between you and the Prots being that the Prots recognize only one source of dogma (Sacred Scripture) while you recognize two (Sacred Scripture and Tradition).  Otherwise, your thesis is identical to theirs, and is simply not Catholic.

    Another perspective on the distinction would be that between quoad se and quoad nos, where something might be dogma quoad se but does not become dogma quoad nos until it's proposed as such by the Church's infallible teaching authority.

    Then of course, as I've pointed out, and all Catholic theologians admit, there's the content of dogma, i.e. WHAT is believed, vs. WHY it's believed.  St. Thomas clearly teaches the distinction, namely, that natural truths are believed on their own merits, whereas supernatural truths can only be believed based on the authority of the One Revealing them, and it's a combined act of intellect and will, the latter being drawn by the intellectual motives of credibility into a submission of the will to that authority.  But supernatural truths are simply not knowable on their own or intrinsically.  Vatican I made that definition quite clear.

    Here's another way to look at it.  So, we believe dogma due to the authority of God revealing.  But how do we know that it was God who revealed these things?  Did God come down and tell us that it was He behind Sacred Scripture and Tradition?  Of course not.  We accepted it based upon the testimony of the Church, those whom He sent to communicate this to us.  If we didn't believe in and accept their testimony, who know? ... they could have made the whole thing up, just like Mohammed made up his fake religion.  Just as it's absurd to believe, as the Prots do, that somehow God plopped the Bible down onto earth from heaven in the same way he wrote on the stone tables for Moses (and even then we have to take Moses' word for it, and believe that he didn't just carve those up himself during his prolonged stay alone up there and pretend that God did it).  Similarly, God didn't just plop "Tradition" down, along with the Bible.  And, just as the Prots decided that the Bible did not require any authoritative interpretation (since it was their "rule of faith") ... leading to there being currently over 23,000 different Prot denominations with varying interpretations of said Bible, it's precisely the same grave error and "corruption of faith" to assert the same thing of Tradition, that it requires no interpretation.  Long before the Prots came along, when people still believed in Tradition, there were myriad heresies from the very beginnings of the Church, from people who claimed a different interpretation of Bible and Tradition.  How does one discern the correct interpretation and the false one?  Obviously by relying upon the authority of the Church.

    Ladislaus,
     
    You have a long track record of posting gross errors and then, rather than correcting them, trying to cover your tracks by "esoteric" qualifications that muddle the issue and often lead to bigger errors. You routinely post without having read or reflected on the question at hand which is evidence of sloth and offer "authoritative" opinions ground on thin air. You are doing the same thing with this current thread. So I will freely link your previous posts as I clean up your mess.
     
     Re: Why SSPX Cannot Defend Catholic Tradition - Bakery & Wine Cellar Consecrations
    « Reply #105 on: July 28, 2023, 03:14:09 PM
     
    Protestants believe that the remote rule of faith is scripture alone and the proximate rule of faith is the individual believer. Protestants reject that the Magisterium of the Church is intrinsic to the faith, that is, of divine revelation. In fact it is one of the fundamental doctrines uniting all Protestants. I affirm that the remote rule of faith is Scripture and Tradition and the proximate rule of faith is dogma. Since the instrumental and material cause of dogma is the Magisterium that Protestants reject, it is not possible to be a Protestant. What you have said is calumny because you cannot produce a single post from me calling into question that the Magisterium of the Church is of divine revelation. Besides being calumny, it is an ignorant accusation.
     
    But on the other hand, I can produce posts from you denying that the Magisterium is intrinsic to the faith, that is, part of divine revelation. Here are links to posts where you made the colossal error that the "magisterium of the Church IS NOT part of divine revelation" but, as you said, it is "formally distinct." The posts also contain Magisterial statements referring to dogma as the rule of faith.
     
    Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #146 on: March 20, 2018, 10:11:04 PM
     
     Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #141 on: March 20, 2018, 07:22:26 AM »
     
    Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #182 on: March 23, 2018, 08:59:53 PM
     
    Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #236 on: March 26, 2018, 09:37:49 PM
     
    And lastly, a link to a post the docuмents multiple errors providing specific citations:
     
     Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #251 on: March 27, 2018, 07:12:01 PM
     
     
    It is good that you have in some measure corrected your error that corrupted the virtue of faith by distinguishing a difference between what we believe and why we believe it. But for clarity, there is no such thing as "WHAT is believed vs. WHY it's believed" and it has nothing to do with the distinction between natural truths and divinely revealed truths. Here is a link previously correcting your error on this question.
     
    Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #175 on: March 23, 2018, 02:13:52 PM
     
    The entire thread, Is Fr. Ringrose dumping the R&R crowd?, has an interesting history. The thread extended to 174 pages when it was locked by the Moderator who then deleted all your posts and Cantarella's posts which reduced the thread to 76 pages. Nearly 100 pages attributed to you and Cantarella alone were considered not worth retaining! Your posts and Cantarella's were not lost entirely because when replying I always quoted your entire posts so that there would be no question of taking you out of context. The thread has been read nearly 240,000 times. The reading have increased. It has been read over 70,000 times in the last 15 months. I have been contacted many times by those who appreciate the clarity brought to confusing questions.
     
    You claim that the magisterium is your proximate rule of faith but you constantly use the term equivocally. But this is just another obfuscation. The pope holds the keys to the magisterium, so no matter how you understand the term, the pope is therefore your proximate rule of faith. You confuse always means and ends. The end of a Magisterial act is dogma. Dogma is the proximate rule of faith. This truth is established by quotations provided by Church fathers, Councils and theologians in the Ringrose thread but that made no impression on you. Let's explain once again why the definition of heresy makes this necessarily so and what the implications of this means to you.
     
    St. Thomas (II-II:11:1) defines heresy: "a species of infidelity in men who, having professed the faith of Christ, corrupt its dogmas." The genus of both faith and heresy is the deposit of faith by those who "professed the faith of Christ." The species difference it that the heretic "corrupts" dogma and the faithful do not. This is an essential definition. Essential definitions are the most intelligible of all definitions for a specific reason.
     
    In a previous post I cited St. Thomas who teaches that the existence of God IS NOT self-evident necessarily. Once the terms of the definition are understood regarding the existence of God, then, the existence of God is not just evident, but becomes a self-evident necessary truth. Vatican I dogmatized that the existence of God can be known with certainty from created things. This means that the terms are themselves evident that must be understood to provide an essential definition that God exists. This is what essential definitions do. When the terms of the proposition are understood, the truth becomes self-evident. Yet, there are many who claim to be atheists. They reject the definition of the terms.
     
    To deny that dogma is the proximate rule of faith requires the rejection of the terms of the definition of heresy as the rejection of dogma. It begins with denying dogma in its essence which is the heresy of Modernism, as well as Neo-modernism. There can only be a distinction between dogma quoad se and dogma quoad nos by someone who corrupts the definition of dogma. But, corruption of definitions is your forte. Dogma is divine  revelation formally defined by the Magisterium of the Church and proposed to all the faithful as a formal object of divine and Catholic faith. So how is it possible that dogma could be "quoad se because there is no self-referential subjective quality to dogma? Neo-modernism as heresy says exactly the opposite. It claims that dogma is formally divine and materially human. It claims that the material human element must undergo perpetual refinement by the magisterium to better approximate the divine truth. It denies that there is anything definitive with dogma and consequently one must constantly ask the magisterium what dogma currently means today. They hold the magisterium as the proximate rule of faith, that is, the pope, and look to him to determine what now is to be held as a formal object of faith. You in fact accuse me of being a "Protestant" because I take dogma literally, because I DO NOT return to the current pope and ask for a magisterial judgment of what a specific dogma means today. I DO NOT ask for a magisterial judgment regarding what we are currently to believe regarding Catholic truths such as the True Presence, the Assumption, the Resurrection, etc., etc. You believe in the evolution of dogma and therefore it cannot possibly be the proximate rule of faith. And in this you corrupt dogma in its essence. That is why the essential definition is unintelligible to you. That is why you cannot "see" the self-evident truth. It is the same reason that atheists cannot "see" that God necessarily exists.
     
    It is in fact a diagnosis of a terminal condition.

     Drew

     





    Offline drew

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  • Ladislaus,
     
    You have a long track record of posting gross errors and then, rather than correcting them, trying to cover your tracks by "esoteric" qualifications that muddle the issue and often lead to bigger errors. You routinely post without having read or reflected on the question at hand which is evidence of sloth and offer "authoritative" opinions ground on thin air. You are doing the same thing with this current thread. So I will freely link your previous posts as I clean up your mess.
     
     Re: Why SSPX Cannot Defend Catholic Tradition - Bakery & Wine Cellar Consecrations
    « Reply #105 on: July 28, 2023, 03:14:09 PM
     
    Protestants believe that the remote rule of faith is scripture alone and the proximate rule of faith is the individual believer. Protestants reject that the Magisterium of the Church is intrinsic to the faith, that is, of divine revelation. In fact it is one of the fundamental doctrines uniting all Protestants. I affirm that the remote rule of faith is Scripture and Tradition and the proximate rule of faith is dogma. Since the instrumental and material cause of dogma is the Magisterium that Protestants reject, it is not possible to be a Protestant. What you have said is calumny because you cannot produce a single post from me calling into question that the Magisterium of the Church is of divine revelation. Besides being calumny, it is an ignorant accusation.
     
    But on the other hand, I can produce posts from you denying that the Magisterium is intrinsic to the faith, that is, part of divine revelation. Here are links to posts where you made the colossal error that the "magisterium of the Church IS NOT part of divine revelation" but, as you said, it is "formally distinct." The posts also contain Magisterial statements referring to dogma as the rule of faith.
     
    Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #146 on: March 20, 2018, 10:11:04 PM
     
     Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #141 on: March 20, 2018, 07:22:26 AM »
     
    Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #182 on: March 23, 2018, 08:59:53 PM
     
    Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #236 on: March 26, 2018, 09:37:49 PM
     
    And lastly, a link to a post the docuмents multiple errors providing specific citations:
     
     Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #251 on: March 27, 2018, 07:12:01 PM
     
     
    It is good that you have in some measure corrected your error that corrupted the virtue of faith by distinguishing a difference between what we believe and why we believe it. But for clarity, there is no such thing as "WHAT is believed vs. WHY it's believed" and it has nothing to do with the distinction between natural truths and divinely revealed truths. Here is a link previously correcting your error on this question.
     
    Re: Is Father Ringrose dumping the R & R crowd?
    « Reply #175 on: March 23, 2018, 02:13:52 PM
     
    The entire thread, Is Fr. Ringrose dumping the R&R crowd?, has an interesting history. The thread extended to 174 pages when it was locked by the Moderator who then deleted all your posts and Cantarella's posts which reduced the thread to 76 pages. Nearly 100 pages attributed to you and Cantarella alone were considered not worth retaining! Your posts and Cantarella's were not lost entirely because when replying I always quoted your entire posts so that there would be no question of taking you out of context. The thread has been read nearly 240,000 times. The reading have increased. It has been read over 70,000 times in the last 15 months. I have been contacted many times by those who appreciate the clarity brought to confusing questions.
     
    You claim that the magisterium is your proximate rule of faith but you constantly use the term equivocally. But this is just another obfuscation. The pope holds the keys to the magisterium, so no matter how you understand the term, the pope is therefore your proximate rule of faith. You confuse always means and ends. The end of a Magisterial act is dogma. Dogma is the proximate rule of faith. This truth is established by quotations provided by Church fathers, Councils and theologians in the Ringrose thread but that made no impression on you. Let's explain once again why the definition of heresy makes this necessarily so and what the implications of this means to you.
     
    St. Thomas (II-II:11:1) defines heresy: "a species of infidelity in men who, having professed the faith of Christ, corrupt its dogmas." The genus of both faith and heresy is the deposit of faith by those who "professed the faith of Christ." The species difference it that the heretic "corrupts" dogma and the faithful do not. This is an essential definition. Essential definitions are the most intelligible of all definitions for a specific reason.
     
    In a previous post I cited St. Thomas who teaches that the existence of God IS NOT self-evident necessarily. Once the terms of the definition are understood regarding the existence of God, then, the existence of God is not just evident, but becomes a self-evident necessary truth. Vatican I dogmatized that the existence of God can be known with certainty from created things. This means that the terms are themselves evident that must be understood to provide an essential definition that God exists. This is what essential definitions do. When the terms of the proposition are understood, the truth becomes self-evident. Yet, there are many who claim to be atheists. They reject the definition of the terms.
     
    To deny that dogma is the proximate rule of faith requires the rejection of the terms of the definition of heresy as the rejection of dogma. It begins with denying dogma in its essence which is the heresy of Modernism, as well as Neo-modernism. There can only be a distinction between dogma quoad se and dogma quoad nos by someone who corrupts the definition of dogma. But, corruption of definitions is your forte. Dogma is divine  revelation formally defined by the Magisterium of the Church and proposed to all the faithful as a formal object of divine and Catholic faith. So how is it possible that dogma could be "quoad se" because there is no self-referential subjective quality to dogma? Neo-modernism as heresy says exactly the opposite. It claims that dogma is formally divine and materially human. It claims that the material human element must undergo perpetual refinement by the magisterium to better approximate the divine truth. It denies that there is anything definitive with dogma and consequently one must constantly ask the magisterium what dogma currently means today. They hold the magisterium as the proximate rule of faith, that is, the pope, and look to him to determine what now is to be held as a formal object of faith. You in fact accuse me of being a "Protestant" because I take dogma literally, because I DO NOT return to the current pope and ask for a magisterial judgment of what a specific dogma means today. I DO NOT ask for a magisterial judgment regarding what we are currently to believe regarding Catholic truths such as the True Presence, the Assumption, the Resurrection, etc., etc. You believe in the evolution of dogma and therefore it cannot possibly be the proximate rule of faith. And in this you corrupt dogma in its essence. That is why the essential definition is unintelligible to you. That is why you cannot "see" the self-evident truth. It is the same reason that atheists cannot "see" that God necessarily exists.
     
    It is in fact a diagnosis of a terminal condition.

     Drew

     

    CORRECTION:
     
    There is an error that needs correction and clarification in the above quoted post. 

    St. Thomas says that the existence of God IS NOT self-evident. The truth that God exists is deduced necessarily from the First Principles of the Understanding on which the proofs for the existence of God offered by St. Thomas rest. It is the First Principles of the Understanding that constitute self-evident truths from which the existence of God necessarily follows. These proofs are not an essential definition because for God, and for individuals within any given species, there can be no essential definition because there is no genus and species difference.  The First Principles of the Understanding are self-evident truths and are not subject to proof themselves but form the bedrock on which all proof rests. Although they cannot be proven, they are demonstrable.
    Essential definitions are analogous to this in that once the genus and species difference are known the thing defined becomes self-evident.
     
    In reply #21 what I said is correct that an essential definition is analogous to the self-evident truth that God exists when the definitions are known  :
    Quote
    "St. Thomas says that the existence of God is not self-evident but it becomes self-evident once the terms of the definition are known. An essential definition does the same thing: when the terms are know the meaning is self-evident. That is why the definition of heresy makes the truth that dogma constitutes the proximate rule of faith self-evident. That is why an essential definition is the most intelligible of all definitions."

    In reply #25 what I said is incorrect:
    Quote
    "In a previous post I cited St. Thomas who teaches that the existence of God IS NOT self-evident necessarily. Once the terms of the definition are understood regarding the existence of God, then, the existence of God is not just evident, but becomes a self-evident necessary truth. Vatican I dogmatized that the existence of God can be known with certainty from created things. This means that the terms are themselves evident that must be understood to provide an essential definition that God exists. This is what essential definitions do. When the terms of the proposition are understood, the truth becomes self-evident. Yet, there are many who claim to be atheists. They reject the definition of the terms"

    The bold should say, ".... to provide the proofs that God exists" and not say "to provide an essential definition that God exists."
     
    I apologize for the careless error.
     
    Drew



    Offline Viva Cristo Rey

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  • Yes. Please defend Archbishop Vigano. 

    Remember during Covid, he was quick to give out letters of religious exemptions. 

    Did any other clergy offer letters?  Who?
    May God bless you and keep you