I responded to this question already in this Post and offered my opinion as to why every book out there that I could ever find taught the same thing - that whatever the magisterium says or does, is automatically infallible - which is altogether wrong. Which is why I ask for papal or magisterial docuмents on the magisterium to compare to what all the theologians and books teach. To date, all the theologians and books teach something different than all the papal docuмents.
Stubborn,
Here you are admitting that all books you have ever found about the magisterium state that it is automatically infallible, and then state they are WRONG??? You've lost your mind brother - you sound just like Martin Luther.
Here's you thinking I lost my mind, you also think I added words to the dogmatic decree. What words did I add? Please post the words I added which changed the meaning.
You're doing EXACTLY what the old poster Ambose did after he finally read what a Canon from Trent actually said. He accused me of heresy because he finally realized what the Canon taught - and like you, he thought I changed something, but I never changed one word. Because I never changed a word, he was guilty of accusing Trent of heresy. You are doing the same thing he did. I did not change one word.
I am saying that actual magisterial teachings on papal infallibility and the infallibility of the UOM, disagree with every teaching from any book's teachings I personally have ever read. Granted I never made it my mission to read every book ever written on the subject, but the few I have read cannot be reconciled with any magisterial teachings I've read.
I've asked those who say the magisterium is always infallible to produce magisterial teachings first, then theologian teachings second for the purpose of demonstrating the differences. The differences cannot be reconciled.
I ask you to do the same thing - stop posting from the encyclopedia and post from any magisterial docuмent as 2Vermont and BD did. *Then* go ahead and reconcile the Cekadian UOM with the Church's - so far, no one has been able to. All they've done so far is post the papal teachings, then try and convince us that they do not actually say what they say or mean what they say.
Infallibility is not something automatic. It is a promise from God applied to a teaching or teachings that are in the deposit of faith, handed to us via solemn pronouncements or through the teachings of the UOM.
If the UOM taught that no one in purgatory was sentenced to more than one day before being released into heaven, that teaching would necessarily be a revelation, a Divine Revelation of something belonging to the deposit of faith, something already established and would be dogmatically decreed. Without a dogmatic decree, for that teaching to be infallible it would be a teaching which was known to be taught by the Apostles and was a teaching of the UOM.
OTOH, if the magisterium which existed 200 years ago just decided to start teaching it, that in and of itself would not make it an infallible teaching, it would not be infallible by virtue of them teaching it, it would be error because it was not a teaching of the UOM, nor was it ever dogmatically decreed.
This is how it works. This is why PPXII and the other similar papal teachings posted here, make it clear what criteria is necessary to be infallible. They are not shy about making sure this is understood so that they can be sure that we are certain of what is infallible and what is not.
You've been taught that the magisterium cannot teach error and if they ever do then they lose their offices ipso facto - but the Church does not teach that, a few saints or fathers may have taught that, but those teachings are not teachings of the Church, any pope or the UOM.
The way you believe is the way you were taught, which is the same most were taught - which served it's purpose marvelously for the enemy because when it was time, they pretty much walked right in and took over because most people figured just like you - ie that whatever they did must be OK, because whatever they did was automatically infallible because of who they were.
I read your other post, and you need to stop and think what you are saying. The Catholic Church is made up of human beings; do you really expect hundreds of bishops to come to 100% unanimity when discussing a particular matter?
No, I personally do not expect 100%, but PPXII's
"almost unanimous....prelates and the faithful" UOM means what it says clear enough, and because it is clear enough, we should be able to be absolutely certain that it does not mean "one or more bishops, theologians, saints, Canon Law, or Catechisms".
If you still disagree, then please do as I ask and post a magisterial teaching to demonstrate that in a papal teaching, the UOM means "one or more bishops, theologians, saints, Canon Law, or Catechisms." This is what I've been asking for.
If you can do this, then there will be no need to post anything from any encyclopedia or from any theologian - will there? So far, the magisterial teachings wholly disagree with you.