You really need to read the book because you don’t have any idea what you are talking about. Van Noort is one of the authorities we cite, in the chapter you are referring to, who explains that the ordinary and universal Magisterium is infallible when it proposes definitively.
You make a distinction between defining and proposing, without realizing that they are not mutually exclusive: a doctrine can be proposed definitively or proposed in a way that is not definitive. The ordinary Magisterium is infallible when it proposes definitively. That is one of the conditions for the infallibility of the OUM.
The way that an infallible teaching of the OUM differs from an infallible teaching of the Extraordinary Magisterium, is the way in which the definitive proposal occurs (the way the condition is satisfied). If you read the chapter completely you will learn how this difference takes place. And you are not going to find it in the section of Van Noort that you quoted above. Van Noort has a section of the infallibility of the OUM. It is in that section that you will find out how the OUM proposes infallibly.
The book has over 1450 footnotes. Every argument in the book is backed up by multiple citations.
RobS,
I have posted questions for you earlier in this thread and waiting for your response.
One of these questions pertains to the ordinary magisterium. Paul VI openly stated that Vatican II was part of the ordinary magisterium, and as we know, he gave his full approval to the proceedings of the Council. Earlier in this thread I provided a large list of teachings from the Church showing the ordinary magisterium is always infallible. No exceptions. Waiting for your explanation on how this can be.
All of this is covered in the book. If you want all of the answers to your questions, simply read it. I didn't see your other post, but here is a very brief answer to the point you raised.
Some theologians (not all, but only some) make a
speculative distinction between the ordinary magisterium and the authentic magisterium. They say the ordinary magisterium is infallible, whereas the authentic magisterium is not. This is a
speculative distinction only.
The problem with this distinction on the
practical level is how we are to know if a teaching is coming from the ordinary magisterium or the authentic magisterium? The reason this is a problem is because from our perspective - on the practical level - both appear identical. If you know how to distinguish between a teaching of the authentic magisterium and one coming from the ordinal magisterium, I am all ears.
This is why other theologians do not make this speculative distinction. Instead, they will simply say that the ordinary magisterium is infallible when it meets certain conditions, and it is not infallible when it does not.
Now, if you read the book you will see that Paul VI did not consider Vatican II to be infallible by virtue of the ordinary magisterium. One confirmation of this is that those teachings that have been proposed infallibly require the assent of faith, whereas those that have not been proposed infallibly only require a religious assent. At the close of Vatican II, Paul VI explicitly said that Vatican II is owed a
religious assent. If everything in Vatican II was infallible, it would have required the assent of faith. Again, the book covers all of this is great detail and provides citations to back everything up.