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B) if he was in the habit of having sex with others while courting the new wife and she didn't know about it, he didn't tell anyone, and he continued adultery in the marriage, that would invalidate...

A man could be banging every woman within 100 miles -- before, during and after the nuptials -- and it would not necessarily change anything, whether the woman knew of it or not.  You are an ignorant little punk who should refrain from commenting further about these matters.

No.  Annulments can only come from rome.

I understand that (i.e., either from Rome or from a diocese which has this authority delegated to it by Rome, or are you referring to pre-Vatican II norms, i.e., before V2, did dioceses make declarations of nullity on their own? --- I honestly don't know).

I was just referring to a scenario where it is an open-and-shut, no-doubt-about-it, example of an invalid marriage due to lack of form ("Catholic marries Buddhist in the gondola of a hot air balloon over the Napa Valley with the Dalai Lama officiating"), and that this can be proven by docuмentary evidence that the traditional priest has right there in front of him.  Would the answer still be "nope, not good enough, Rome (or the diocese) has to sign off on this, otherwise, regardless of the evidence, we have to assume the marriage is valid until we get that sign-off"?

And might there be some provision for epikeia in the perceived absence of proper authority to make such a judgment?  "Well, we can't get the sign-off because there is no Pope and there is no competent authority to do it (that would be one particular flavor of SV, there are many, the See can be vacant and the rest of the Church can remain intact, as happens during every interregnum), so we'll accept what we have, rather than continuing to regard Brenda as being in a valid marriage, or rather, a marriage that has not been proven invalid"?

The sinfulness of the spouse does not invalidate a marriage.

If the spouse is lying and unfaithful at the time of the ceremony and the other spouse has no knowledge of it, hasn't the marriage contract  been voided because of the deceit at the time of the matrimonial ceremony? When does the Pauline Principle come into play?