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Just going to throw this out there, let's suppose there were a situation that is clearly a lack of canonical form (Brenda, a Catholic, marries Eddie, a Jєω, before a justice of the peace). Given the situation in the Church, and given that some traditionalists do not think they can approach the local diocese (perhaps they are ecclesiaprivationists who assert that Novus Ordo dioceses have left the Church and have no authority), would it suffice to assemble proof of the lack of canonical form, and then proceed with allowing Brenda to marry a Catholic validly?
Uh, negative. As a whiny, lazy punk who asks for sources he could get himself, that you would offer such groundless, trash input on such a serious matter is most disconcerting, although not remotely surprising.
Source?
Any serious lie before marriage invalidates the traditional Catholic vow.