I don't think this is the first topic I've made on this point, and I'll likely be repeating myself, but I want this discussed.
http://www.vatican.va/archive/hist_councils/ii_vatican_council/docuмents/vat-ii_decl_19651207_dignitatis-humanae_en.html2. This Vatican Council declares that the human person has a right to religious freedom. This freedom means that all men are to be immune from coercion on the part of individuals or of social groups and of any human power, in such wise that no one is to be forced to act in a manner contrary to his own beliefs, whether privately or publicly, whether alone or in association with others, within due limits.
Now, reading that, it doesn't state a person has a right to practice religion according to the dictates of their conscience, but not to be prevented from doing so privately or publicly.
My contention is not concerning their worship in private, but publicly.
After this paragraph it's stated:
The council further declares that the right to religious freedom has its foundation in the very dignity of the human person as this dignity is known through the revealed word of God and by reason itself.
If this right is founded in man's very nature then that means he possessed it at all times. Does anyone agree?
Since religious liberty here means "all men are to be immune from coercion on the part of individuals or of social groups and of any human power" and this is so even when they do so publicly doesn't that mean the suppression of non-Catholic worship in Catholic countries is against the natural law?
http://www.cmri.org/95prog2.htmThe 1953 Concordat upholds the Spaniard’s Charter of July 13, 1945, which states:
Article 6 of the Spanish Charter:
“1) The profession and practice of the Catholic religion, which is that of the Spanish State, will enjoy official protection.
“2) No one shall be disturbed for his religious beliefs nor the private exercise of his religion. There is no authorization for external ceremonies or manifestations of other than those of the Catholic religion.”
Wouldn't #2 violate man's right to not be impeded of religious liberty, publicly, which right has its foundation in man's very nature (according to Vatican II)?