I read his posts, not sure what the miscommunication is. Absolution offered without jurisdiction is invalid-- this is about as controversial as saying baptism done with kool-aid is invalid.
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If a priest doesn't have jurisdiction or doesn't attract a supply of it for some reason, then his absolutions are invalid.
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Really? Is jurisdiction considered matter in the Sacrament of Confession? I don't think the two are analogous at all.
I thought sacramental validity is based on form, matter and intention. What part does jurisdiction fall under?
If Orthodox priests provide valid absolutions because they are true priests and they aren't even in the Church, then why does the validity of a Roman Catholic priest's absolution change if he absolves in a different state? Again, to me this sounds more like an issue of liciety not validity.
Does someone have church teaching on what makes the Sacrament of Confession valid?