My response to his first babbling:
I'm sorry, are you asking me if girl altar boys were legally allowed before 1994? I'm finding it hard to take this question seriously.
In the '83 Code "laici" clearly referred to men and was deliberately translated by our friends at ICEL, (who gave us "for all" in the consecration), as "persons" to create ambiguity. Clerics before 1980 up until '94 continued to disobey the express will of the Pope until the Vatican gave permission for the first time in 1994 to allow the practice.
Your logic would have us believe that JPII in his own '83 Canon Law meant to allow girl altar boys across the Church, having just three years previously condemned the practice.
Not only this, you would have us believe he changed the entire 2,000 year tradition of the Church of not allowing women to serve at the altar with not so much as a peep of explanation and no media fanfare in '83?
This is absurd.
The same liberal Bishops and priests who were disobeying Rome on this issue before Dominicae caenae, and who caused the need for JPII to write Dominicae caenae, used the '83 Code translation as a pretext to justify their own continuing disobedience.
Were these Bishops acting in good faith when they continued to allow the practice from 80-83?
Come on now. Many Catholics were born at night, but not last night.